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pogonyaev
3 years ago
8

You sell $4,000 per week in bags of dog food at 30% margin. You sell $3,000 per week in dog toys at 45% margin. Which generates

more margin for you?
Business
1 answer:
nika2105 [10]3 years ago
5 0
The dog toys big man boss
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The Mixing Department of Complete Foods had 62,000 equivalent units of materials for October. Of the 62,000 ​units, 38,000 units
Art [367]

Answer:

Materials

62,000 equivalent units

Conversion

42,800 Equivalent untis

Cost of finished Goods

38,000 x (.75 + .55) = 38,000 x 1.3 = $49,400

WIP

24,000 x .75 = 18,000

4,800 x .55 =    2,640

Total WIP         20,640

Explanation:

Equivalent Units

38,000 complete

20% of 24,000 WIP  = 4,800

Equivalent Units CC = 42,800

x .55 CC = 23540

Materials

62,000 x .75 = $46,500

6 0
3 years ago
A client is unconscious and experiencing increasing intracranial pressure. What type of diuretic will the client most likely be
ElenaW [278]

Answer:

osmotic diuretic

Explanation:

Osmotic diuretic -

It refers to the type of diuretic , which resists the absorption of the sodium and water , is referred to as osmotic diuretic .

In simple terms , it refers to the condition of increased urination , where additional water comes out along with urine .

The reason for Osmotic diuresis can be -

Higher level of sugars in blood .

As the client is facing the issue of increased intracranial pressure , where the amount of fluid around the brain is reduced  which is a fatal condition , so in order to avoid this condition , Osmotic diuretic is given , so that the excess fluid can comes out with urine .

Hence , the correct term is osmotic diuretic .

7 0
3 years ago
If you know that the value of an asset is $100 today, what concept will tell you what it will be worth in 5 years given a certai
Virty [35]

Answer:

future value

Explanation:

Future value is the value of a sum of money at some point in the future given a  certain interest rate.

Formula for future value = present value x ( 1 + r )^n

Assuming i = 10

the future value of $100 in 5 years = 100 x ( 1.1)^5 = $161.05

6 0
3 years ago
wants to have a weighted average cost of capital of 9.0 percent. The firm has an after-tax cost of debt of 6.0 percent and a cos
kogti [31]

Answer:

33.33%

Explanation:

WACC can be calculated using the following formula:

WACC = Ke * (E/V)       +    Kd(1-T) * (D/V)

Here

V = Market Value of Equity + Market Value of Debt

Or simple we can write it as:

V = E + D

kd(1-T) is after tax cost of debt which is given in the question and is 6%.

Ke = 9% cost of equity

WACC = 9%

So by putting values we have:

9% = 11% * (E/V) +  6% * (D/V)

Which means:

0.09 = 0.11(E/V) +  0.06(D/V)

By multiplying by (V/E), we have:

0.09(V/E) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

As we know that the V/E is just the equity multiplier, which is equal to:

V/E = 1 + D/E

So by putting value we have:

0.09(D/E + 1) = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

Now, we can solve for D/E as:

0.09(D/E) + 0.09 = 0.11 + 0.06(D/E)

0.09(D/E) - 0.06(D/E) = 0.11 - 0.09

0.03(D/E) = 0.03

(D/E) = 0.02 / 0.03 = 33.33%

4 0
3 years ago
Zeus industries bought a computer for $2868. it is expected to depreciate at a rate of 18% per year. what will the value of the
Natali [406]
Year 1: $2351.76
year 2: $1928.44
year 3: $1581.32
year 4: $1296.69

Depreciation Amount = Asset Value x Annual Percentage

Decreased Value = Asset Value - Depreciation Value
5 0
3 years ago
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