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gregori [183]
3 years ago
12

Axel follows these steps to divide 40 by 9: Start with 40. 1. Divide by 9 and write down the remainder. 2. Write a zero after th

e remainder. 3. Repeat steps 1 and 2 until you have a remainder of zero. Examine his work, and then complete the statements below.
Mathematics
1 answer:
yarga [219]3 years ago
7 0
4 r4
9⬜️40
-36
——
4
“Divide 40 by 9” means 40÷9
Axel did 9÷40


9 goes outside the dog house (⬜️)
9 can’t go into 4 so move to the next number
9 goes into 40 4 times.
9 times 4 equals 36
40 minus 36 equals 4
There are no other numbers under the house can’t go into four and 9 can’t go into 4. That means there is a remained of four.
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-1+5x≥-16 I dont know how to solve
olasank [31]

Answer:  x \ge -3

Explanation:

Follow PEMDAS in reverse to undo what's happening to x.

We first add 1 to both sides, then divide both sides by 5 to fully isolate x.

Refer to the steps below to see what I mean.

-1 + 5x \ge -16\\\\5x \ge -16+1\\\\5x \ge -15\\\\x \ge -15/5\\\\x \ge -3\\\\

The inequality sign stays the same the entire time. The only time it flips is when you divide both sides by a negative number.

The solution set for x is anything -3 or larger.

If x was an integer, then we could say the solution set is {-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, ...}

7 0
2 years ago
You decide to play roulette 200 times each time betting the same amount on red. you will loe money if you win on fewer than 100
Arturiano [62]
First off, your chances of red are not really 50-50. You are overlooking the 0 slot or the 00 slot which are green. So, chances of red are 18 in 37 (0 slot) or 38 (0 and 00 slots). With a betting machine, the odds does not change no trouble what has occurred before. Think through the simplest circumstance, a coin toss. If I toss heads 10 times one after the other, the chances of tails about to happen on the next toss are still on a 50-50. A betting machine has no ability, no plan, and no past. 
Chances (0 slot) that you success on red are 18 out of 37 (18 red slots), but likelihoods of losing are 19 out of 37 (18 black plus 0). For the wheel with both a 0 and 0-0 slot, the odds are poorer. You chances of red are 18 out of 38 (18 red slots win), and down are 20 out of 38 (18 black plus 0 and 00). It does not really matter on how long you play there, the probabilities would always continue the same on every spin. The lengthier you play, the more thoroughly you will tie the chances with a total net loss of that portion of a percent in accord of the house. 18 winning red slots and either 19 or 20 losing slots. 
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3 years ago
8. How do William James's theories on memory relate to modern ideas about short-term and
FromTheMoon [43]

Answer:

As it sounds, the idea itself.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
100 points and brainliest
nordsb [41]

Answer: Hello Luv......

Hope this helps. Mark me brianest please... Anna ♥

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: -40 < T < 140

From the question, we are informed that the gas that the driver uses freezes at −40° F and evaporates at 140° F.

To get the inequality to represent the temperatures at which the gas in the truck will remain in liquid form, we should note that the temperature will be lower than 140°F but more than -40°F. This can be expressed as:

= -40 < T < 140

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Can I PLEASE get some help?
Leviafan [203]
Well 1/40 is 0.025 so that should be the write fraction to use
4 0
3 years ago
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