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Iteru [2.4K]
2 years ago
8

Which is the prime number

Mathematics
2 answers:
Zinaida [17]2 years ago
7 0
19  because it can only be divided by 19 and 1
Mekhanik [1.2K]2 years ago
6 0
The answer is 19, the third one counting from the left.
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POSSIBLE POINTS: 11.76
natta225 [31]

Answer:

B and D.

Brainliest please. :)

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2 years ago
You purchased xyz common shares for $45 per share one year ago. one year later aftering receiving $4 dividend per share, you sol
Pepsi [2]
<span>The return for the investment is C, or 15.56%. You add the dividend and the capital gain, $4+$3=$7, and then divide by the initial investment price, or $45. 7/45=.1556, or 15.56%.</span>
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3 years ago
Simplify the expression 1+2*[(3+1)*5+3]
Lady bird [3.3K]

1 + 2 *[(3+1)*5+3]

=  1 + 2*[(4)*5+3]

=  1 + 2*[20+3]

=  1 + 2 * 23

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Answer

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7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A bank in the Bay area is considering a training program for its staff. The probability that a new training program will increas
WITCHER [35]

Answer:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

See explanation below.

Step-by-step explanation:

For this case we define first some notation:

A= A new training program will increase customer satisfaction ratings

B= The training program can be kept within the original budget allocation

And for these two events we have defined the following probabilities

P(A) = 0.8, P(B) = 0.2

We are assuming that the two events are independent so then we have the following propert:

P(A \cap B ) = P(A) * P(B)

And we want to find the probability that the cost of the training program is not kept within budget or the training program will not increase the customer ratings so then if we use symbols we want to find:

P(B' \cup A')

And using the De Morgan laws we know that:

(A \cap B)' = A' \cup B'

So then we can write the probability like this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')

And using the complement rule we can do this:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)')= 1-P(A \cap B)

Since A and B are independent we have:

P(A \cap B )=P(A)*P(B) =(0.8*0.4) =0.32

And then our final answer would be:

P(B' \cup A') = P((A \cap B)') = 1-P(A \cap B)= 1-0.32=0.68

5 0
3 years ago
Please help me, this is due in 2 hours and I need this done plz.
bija089 [108]

Answer:

It's probably it

Step-by-step explanation:

A = (-4, -2)

B = (1, 6)

Imagine a new point (C) where they intersect (1, -2)

Now we can form a triangle, the distance between A and B will be the hypotenuse.

h² = 5² + 8²

h² = 25 + 64

h² = 89

h = \sqrt{89}

h = ~9.43...

h = 9

5 0
2 years ago
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