For this case we have the following equation:
P (t) = P (1 + r / n) ^ (n * t)
Where,
P: initial investment
r: interest
n: periods
t: time
she will take on her 45th birthday:
for t = 25:
P (25) = 1000 * (1 + 0.0165 / 4) ^ (4 * 25)
P (25) = 1509.31 $
Answer:
The future value of this investment when she takes her trip is:
P (25) = 1509.31 $
43.71, 43.6, 41.92 greatest to least
Answer:
4/40
Step-by-step explanation:
you can reduce this to 1/10
multiplying 4 by both 1 and 10 will give you the fraction 4/40 both can be divided by 4 and that's how it can reduce to the 1st fraction (1/10)
See the attached figure
DB = 4 and DC = 6 , We need to find AD
Using <span>Euclid's theorem for the right triangle
</span><span>
</span><span>∴ DB² = AD * DC
</span><span>
</span><span>∴ 4² = AD * 6
</span><span>
</span><span>∴ 6 AD = 16
</span><span>
</span><span>
</span><span>
∴ AD = 16/6 = 8/3 ≈ 2.67</span>
Answer:
Hi I don't really get it but I'll do my best to figure it out.
Basically if a numerator has a negative exponent it would be moved to the bottom to make the exponent positive.
IF there is a negative exponent at the denominator you move it to the top to make it positive.
Hope that helps.