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Lesechka [4]
3 years ago
15

We the People of the United States, in order to form a

Mathematics
1 answer:
vesna_86 [32]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

C. The federal government is responsible for protecting the people.

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Show that 1n^ 3 + 2n + 3n ^2 is divisible by 2 and 3 for all positive integers n.
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Prove:

Using mathemetical induction:

P(n) = n^{3}+2n+3n^{2}

for n=1

P(n)  = 1^{3}+2(1)+3(1)^{2} = 6

It is divisible by 2 and 3

Now, for n=k, n > 0

P(k) = k^{3}+2k+3k^{2}

Assuming P(k) is divisible by 2 and 3:

Now, for n=k+1:

P(k+1) = (k+1)^{3}+2(k+1)+3(k+1)^{2}

P(k+1) = k^{3}+3k^{2}+3k+1+2k+2+3k^{2}+6k+3

P(k+1) = P(k)+3(k^{2}+3k+2)

Since, we assumed that P(k) is divisible by 2 and 3, therefore, P(k+1) is also

divisible by 2 and 3.

Hence, by mathematical induction, P(n) = n^{3}+2n+3n^{2} is divisible by 2 and 3 for all positive integer n.

3 0
3 years ago
what is the slope of the line that passes through the points (4,10) and (1,10) write your answer in simplest form​
kipiarov [429]

Answer:

all work is shown and pictured

8 0
3 years ago
If angle ABD is 90 degrees. Select all of the angles that measure 42 degrees.
m_a_m_a [10]

Answer:

Measure of angle 2 and angle 4 is 42°.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the figure attached,

m∠ABC = 42°

m(∠ABD) = 90°

m(∠ABD) = m(∠ABC) + m(∠DBC)

90° = 43° + m(∠DBC)

m(∠DBC) = 90 - 43 = 47°

Since ∠ABC ≅ ∠4 [Vertical angles]

m∠ABC = m∠4 = 42°

Since, m∠3 + m∠4 = 90° [Complimentary angles]

m∠3 + 42° = 90°

m∠3 = 90° - 42°

        = 48°

Since, ∠5 ≅ ∠3 [Vertical angles]

m∠5 = m∠3 = 48°

m∠3 + m∠2 = 90° [given that m∠2 + m∠3 = 90°]

m∠2 + 48° = 90°

m∠2 = 90 - 48 = 42°

m∠3+ m∠4 = 90° [Since, ∠3 and ∠4 are the complimentary angles]

48° + m∠4 = 90°

m∠4 = 90 - 48 = 42°

Therefore, ∠2 and ∠4 measure 42°.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the difference? 2x 7 - 8x 7<br> a. -6x 14<br> b. 10x 7<br> c. -16x 7<br> d. -6x 7
spayn [35]
2x^{7}-8x^{7}=-6x^{7}
5 0
3 years ago
If you mix 1 cup of chocolate chips and 1 cup of raisins what is the percentage of chocolate chips
algol13

Answer:

50%

Step-by-step explanation:

50% because when there is only 2 variables and they are each 1 cup there is an even amount of stuff and when you ask for only one percentage that would be 50% because everything is even. Even if you asked for the percentage for the cup of raisins it would also be 50%. Hope this helps <3

4 0
3 years ago
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