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Karo-lina-s [1.5K]
4 years ago
14

Crystal Charm Company makes handcrafted silver charms that attach to jewelry such as a necklace or bracelet. Each charm is adorn

ed with two crystals of various colors. Standard costs follow:
Standard Quantity Standard (Rate) Standard Unit Cost

Silver 0.60 oz. $ 24.00 per oz. $ 14.40

Crystals 4.00 $ 0.45 per crystal 1.80

Direct labor 1.50 hrs. $ 14.00 per hr. 21.00

During the month of January, Crystal Charm made 1,500 charms. The company used 350 ounces of silver (total cost of $7,350) and 3.050 crystals (total cost of $701.50) and paid for 2,400 actual direct labor hours (cost of $34,800.00).Required:1. Calculate Crystal Charm's direct materials price and quantity variances for silver and crystals for the month of January. Indicate whether each variance is favorable or unfavorable.2. Calculate Crystal Charm's direct labor rate and efficiency variances for the month of January. Indicate whether each is favorable or unfavorable.
Business
1 answer:
Damm [24]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

silver

direct materials price  variance   =  $1,050 favorable

direct materials quantity  variance =  $13,200 favorable

Crystals

direct materials price  variance = $671 favorable

direct materials quantity  variance =$1,327.50 favorable

direct labor

direct materials rate variance =  $1,200 unfavorable

direct materials efficiency  variance =$2,100 favorable

Explanation:

silver

direct materials price  variance = (Aq×Ap)-(Aq×Sp)

                                                   = (350×$21,00)-(350×$24.00)

                                                   =  $1,050 favorable

direct materials quantity  variance = (Aq×Sp)-(Sq×Sp)

                                                         = (350×$24.00) -(1,500×0,60×$24.00)

                                                         = $13,200 favorable

Crystals

direct materials price  variance = (Aq×Ap)-(Aq×Sp)

                                                   = (3,050×$0,23)-(3,050×$0.45)

                                                   =  $671 favorable

direct materials quantity  variance = (Aq×Sp)-(Sq×Sp)

                                                         = (3,050×$0.45) -(1,500×4.00×$0.45)

                                                         = $1,327.50 favorable

direct labor

direct materials rate variance = (Aq×Ap)-(Aq×Sp)

                                                   = (2,400×$14,50)-(2,400×$14.00)

                                                   =  $1,200 unfavorable

direct materials efficiency  variance = (Aq×Sp)-(Sq×Sp)

                                                         = (2,400×$14.00) -(1,500×1.50×$14.00)

                                                         = $2,100 favorable

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Answer:

Option A

Make the logistics function more complicated

Explanation:

The JIT inventory system refers to the Just In Time inventory system.

The just-in-time (JIT) inventory system is a management strategy where warehousing of parts is minimum. Rather, the raw material supply is aligned accurately with the production schedule of a particular good.

For example, in car production, the various car parts are supplied by various manufacturers at just the right time so they can be assembled to make up the car in the assembly line. The car assembly companies may not necessarily have to store raw materials in their ware house since the raw materials arrive "Just in time".

However, aligning the supply of raw materials accurately with production time, is a complicated task especially when a lot of manufacturers are involved and can need to plant down time if care is not taken. This makes the logistics function more complicated.

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Your company is considering a new project that will require $10,000 of new equipment at the start of the project. The equipment
zmey [24]

Answer:

Estimate the present value of the tax benefits from depreciation:

D. $1,851

Explanation:

<em>Step 1: Determine annual depreciation</em>

A.D=(A.C-S.V)/N

where;

A.D=annual depreciation

A.C=acquisition cost

S.V=salvage value

N=useful life

In our case;

A.D=unknown, to be determined

A.C=$10,000

S.V=$3,000

N=5 years

replacing;

A.D={(10,000-3,000)/5}=7,000/5=$1,400

Annual depreciation=$1,400

<em>Step 2: Determine annual tax benefits</em>

Annual tax benefits=tax rate×annual depreciation

where;

tax rate=34%=34/100=0.34

annual depreciation=$1,400

replacing;

Annual tax benefits=0.34×1,400=$476

<em>Step 3: Determine present value of the annual tax benefits</em>

Year                  Future value                Present value

 1                          476                            476/{(1+0.09)^1}=436.70

 2                         476                            476/{(1+0.09)^2}=400.64

 3                         476                            476/{(1+0.09)^3}=367.56

 4                         476                            476/{(1+0.09)^4}=337.21

 5                         476                            476/{(1+0.09)^5}=309.37

Total present value of the tax benefits=436.70+400.64+367.56+337.21+309.37=$1,851.48

Estimate the present value of the tax benefits from depreciation=$1,851

3 0
3 years ago
Baldwin has negotiated a new labor contract for the next round that will affect the cost for their product Best. Labor costs wil
kkurt [141]
The answer with me d
8 0
2 years ago
You’ve borrowed $23,072 on margin to buy shares in Ixnay, which is now selling at $41.2 per share. You invest 1,120 shares. Your
BlackZzzverrR [31]

Answer:

(a) Since the percentage margin is more than maintenance margin, there would be no call

(b) A margin call would be received when the price is $15.26

Explanation:

(a) Total investment = $23,072 × \frac{100}{50} = $46,144

Total shares = Total investment ÷ share price

= $46,144 ÷ $41.2 = 1,120

Value of share in market = new price × number of shares

= $41 × 1,120

= $45,920

Value of equity = Value of share in the market - borrowed cash

= $45,920 - $23,072

= $22,848

Percentage margin = Value of equity ÷ Value of shares

= ($22,848 ÷ $45,920) × 100%

= 49.76%

(b) Total number of shares = 1,120

Assumed value of shares = $1,120X

Borrowed fund = $23,072

Value of equity = $1,120X - $23,072

Margin = Value of equity ÷ Value of shares

0.35 = ($1,120X - $23,072) ÷ $1,120X

392X = $1,120X - $23,072

1512X = $23,072

X = $15.26

7 0
3 years ago
Larkspur, Inc. reports net income of $89,770 in 2017. However, ending inventory was understated by $7,100. Collapse question par
swat32

Answer:

$96,870

Explanation:

The understatement of ending inventory causes the cost of goods sold to be overstated and the gross and net income to be understated by the same amount.

If the 2017 ending inventory was understated by $7,100 then the correct net income figure for 2017 will be $7,1000 more that what was reported.

Therefore, 2017 corrected net income

= $89,770 + $7,100

= $96,870

4 0
3 years ago
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