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Orlov [11]
3 years ago
8

A closed-end fund starts the year with a net asset value of $20. By year-end, NAV equals $20.90. At the beginning of the year, t

he fund is selling at a 4% premium to NAV. By the end of the year, the fund is selling at a 9% discount to NAV. The fund paid year-end distributions of income and capital gains of $2.30.
What is the rate of return to an investor in the fund during the year?
Business
1 answer:
Korvikt [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

2.5%

Explanation:

Price at the beginning = NAV at the beginning × (1 + premium)

= 20 × 1.04 = 20.8

Price at the end = NAV at the end × (1 - premium)

= 20.90 × 0.91 = 19.019

NAV increase by $0.90 but price decrease by 1.781

Returns = (0.91 × 20.90 - 1.04 × 20 + 2.30) ÷ 1.04 × 20

= 0.519 ÷ 1.04 × 20

= 0.0249

= 2.49%

= 2.5%

OR

Returns = change in P + distribution / start of year P

= -1.781 + 2.30 / 1.04 × 20

= 0.519/20.8

= 0.0249

=2.49%

= 2.5%

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Babcock Company purchased a piece of machinery for $36,000 on January 1, 2019, and has been depreciating the machine using the s
pogonyaev

Answer:

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

Explanation:

Year  Remaining Life of machine  Depreciation fraction

1                               5                                           5/15

2                              4                                           4/15

3                              3                                           3/15

4                              2                                           2/15

5                          <u>    1     </u>                                       1/15

Total                       15  

Now here, the depreciation formula is as under:

Depreciation expense = (Cost - Salvage Value) * Fraction value

<u>Year 2019:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 5/15  = $12,000

<u>Year 2020:</u>

The sum of years digit fraction would be 5/15 and the cost of the machinery is $36,000. So

Depreciation Expense = ($36,000 - 0) * 4/15  = $9,600

<u>Year 2021:</u>

Now in this year the there is change in estimate and a switch in the use of the depreciation method, which is now straight line method. The change in estimate only includes the useful life of the asset which is 6 years from the date of purchase.

So for straight-line depreciation:

Depreciation Expense = (Cost - Salvage Value)  / Useful Life

By simply putting values, we have:

Depreciation Expense = $36,000 / 6 years = $6,000 per year

So this means, according to change in accounting policy, the excess depreciation charged must be eliminated from the previous years. The depreciation charge for the previous 2 years must be $12,000 and the excess depreciation charge is calculated as under:

Carrying value of the asset = $21,600 - $12,000  = $9,600

<u>Requirement 1:</u>

The double entry according to the US GAAP, for the excess depreciation charge in the previous years would be the waiving off of retained earnings with the excess depreciation amount calculated above.

Dr Accumulated Depreciation $9,600

Cr Retained Earnings  Account      $9,600

<u></u>

<u>Requirement 2:</u>

The depreciation expense for the year 2021, would be recorded as under:

Dr Depreciation Expense $6,000

Cr Accumulated Depreciation $6,000

3 0
3 years ago
The University could continue to use the present bus for the next seven years. Whether the present bus is used or a new bus is p
Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

If the present bus is repaired, the present value of the annual cash operating costs associated with this alternative is calculated as follows;

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2 years ago
In the equation of exchange, M x V = P x Q, the P represents ___________________.
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

P in the equation represents Price level

Explanation:

The equation above is referred to as the equation of exchange.

M = money supply, V= velocity of money, P= price level and Q= real output (real GDP)

P × Q gives the nominal GDP while M×V is the effective money supply.

The total value of goods and services available in the economy (represented by the nominal GDP) is equals to the total amount of money available to purchase them (the effective money supply.

The velocity of money is the rate at which money been is used or spent for transaction purposes in the economy. It is assumed to be constant.

For example, If there exist only a $1000 note in the economy, this amount just needs to be spent once to purchase a total nominal GDP of $1000. However, if there exist just one $500 note, then it means the $500 will need to be spent 2 times to purchase the total value of goods worth $1000. The 2 is the velocity of money

This equation is also used to explain the concept of the quantity theory of money.

The theory states that if an economy is operating at the full employment level, an increase in money supply will not impact the real GDP rather it will drive up the price level up. This idea forms the basis of the position of some economists that money supply drives inflation

The assumptions of the theory are as follows:

The velocity of money is constant

The the economy is at the full employment output. This implies that the economy is using all of its productive resources efficiently

3 0
3 years ago
Which of the answers below correctly describe the cash over and short account? (check all that apply.)
lisabon 2012 [21]

The answers below correctly describe the cash over and short account as a debit balance reflecting an expense.

The debit stability in a margin account is the entire sum of money owed by the consumer to a broker or other lender for budget borrowed to purchase securities. a sum of money in a bank account, etc. that's much less than zero due to the fact more money becomes taken out of it than the total amount that becomes paid into it: clients should remember to transfer the debit stability to a credit card with a special charge for debt transfers.

assets and prices have herbal debit balances. which means nice values for assets and expenses are debited and bad balances are credited. subsequently, the current account has debit stability that must be shown on the asset aspect of the stability Sheet.

To learn more about debit balance visit here:

brainly.in/question/22645789

#SPJ4

4 0
10 months ago
Imagine you have just learned a new and more effective way to complete a task at work, You have to teach it to a new co worker w
ad-work [718]

Answer:

By showing them that this new way is more effective. Actions speak louder than words.

8 0
3 years ago
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