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2 years ago

5

The equation d = d equals StartFraction m Over V EndFraction. can be used to calculate the density, d, of an object with mass, m

, and volume, V. Which is an equivalent equation solved for V?

2 answers:

Alisiya [41]2 years ago

6 0

Answer:

m/d = V

Step-by-step explanation:

Bad White [126]2 years ago

5 0

Answer:

m/d=V

Step-by-step explanation:

I did the quiz

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Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

Step 3: The measure of angle DAB is 60°. Reason: Since DAE is a right angle, and EAB is 30 degrees, 90 - 30 is 60. (Just find the reason that is related to this statement).

Step 4: The measure of angle ABC is 130°. Reason: Same-side Interior Angles Theorem

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0

2 years ago

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a

Ronch [10]

Answer:

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each property, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they are sold, or they are not. The chance of selling any one property is independent of selling another property, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

A real estate agent has 12 properties that she shows.

This means that $n = 12$

She feels that there is a 30% chance of selling any one property during a week.

This means that $p = 0.3$

Compute the probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

2 or less sold, which is:

$P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)$

In which

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 0) = C_{12,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{12} = 0.0138$

$P(X = 1) = C_{12,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{11} = 0.0712$

$P(X = 2) = C_{12,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.1678$

Then

$P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0138 + 0.0712 + 0.1678 = 0.2528$

0.2528 = 25.28% probability of selling no more than 2 properties in one week.

8 0

3 years ago

Mr. Thomas drove 75 miles in May. He drove 6 times as many miles in July as he did in May. He

harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

1800 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in May = 75

It is given that miles driven in July is 6 times of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in May(75 miles).

Thus

No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in July = 6 * No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in May = 6*75 = 450 miles.

__________________________________________________

Another condition given that miles driven in June is 4 times of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in July(450miles as calculated above).

Thus

No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in June = 4 * No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in July = 4* 450 miles = 1800 miles.

No. of miles driven by Mr. Thomas in June is 1800 miles.

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3 years ago

Help me pls & thanksss

lbvjy [14]

Answer:

135 degrees.

Step-by-step explanation:

Assuming that it is a regular octagon, you can use the formula (n-2) (180) divided by n. n = sides. Therefore, (8-2) (180) divided by 8, which is 135.

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2 years ago

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Marge cut 16 pieces of tape. Each piece is 3/8in long HOW MUCH TAPE DID SHE USE???????? meow :3

Alla [95]

To solve this, all you need to do is multiply 16 by 3/8. When you multiply a whole number by a fraction, make the whole number into a fraction by putting it over 1.

16 3
---- x ---- Multiply the numerators together and then the denominators.
1 8

(16 x 3) / (1 x 8)

48 / 8 Then divide.

She used 6 inches of tape.

3 0

2 years ago

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