You can either use the inverse function theorem or compute the general derivative using implicit differentiation. The first method is slightly faster.
The IFT goes like this: if f(x) is invertible and f(a) = b, then finv(b) = a (where "finv" means "inverse of f").
By definition of inverse functions, we have
f(finv(x)) = finv(f(x)) = x
Differentiating both sides of the second equality with respect to x using the chain rule gives
finv'(f(x)) * f'(x) = 1
When x = a, we get
finv'(b) * f'(a) = 1
or
finv'(b) = 1/f'(a)
Now let f(x) = sin(x), which is invertible over the interval -π/2 ≤ x ≤ π/2. In the interval, we have sin(x) = √3/2 when x = π/3. We also have f'(x) = cos(x).
So we take a = π/3 and b = √3/2. Then
arcsin'(√3/2) = 1/cos(π/3) = 1/(1/2) = 2
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
The congruence statement for the triangles does not list point (or angle) S, so no claim about segments or angles involving S will be supported by the congruence statement.
The statement
tells you ...
No other claims can be made using CPCTC. The statement among the answer choices that is not true by CPCTC is ...
Answer: where’s the question??
Answer:
28
Step-by-step explanation:
20+26+26 = 72
to get the mean of four numbers means
(x+x+x+x) / 4 = 25
so
100-72=28
Step-by-step explanation:
∠5 = 49⁰
∠6 = 131⁰
Mark it brainliest if it helps you ❤️
