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Otrada [13]
4 years ago
7

What is the multifactor productivity for Space Z Inc. using the following data?

Business
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

multi factory productivity= 2.37

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

10,000 Units Produced

Sold for $10/unit

500 labor hours

Labor rate: $9/hr

Cost of raw material: $30,000

Overhead: $15,50

To calculate the multi factory productivity, we need to use the following formula:

multi factory productivity= output/ (labor + material + overhead)

multi factory productivity= (10,000*10) / (4,500 + 30,000 + 7,750)

multi factory productivity= 2.37

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Rauch Incorporated leases a piece of equipment to Donahue Corporation on January 1, 2017. The lease agreement called for annual
REY [17]

Answer:

87 because he

Explanation: add then multiply;

6 0
3 years ago
If Morton Company expects to sell VCR’s at $100 a unit with variable costs of $60 per unit and DVD’s at $200 per unit with varia
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

$72

Explanation:

To calculate the weighted contribution margin we can use the following formula:

[(sales price A - variable cost A) x proportional sales A] + [(sales price B - variable cost B) x proportional sales B]

= [($200 - $120) x 80%] + [($100 - $60) x 20%] = $64 + $8 = $72

7 0
3 years ago
On June 13, the board of directors of Siewert Inc. declared a 2-for-1 stock split on its 60 million, $1 par, common shares, to b
uranmaximum [27]

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entry is given below:

Stock dividends Dr $60.00  

         To Common stock  $60.00

(Being the issue of stock dividend is recorded)

Here the stock dividend is debited as it reduced the stockholder equity and credited the common stock as it increased the stockholder equity

Also the par per share after the split is $1

8 0
3 years ago
Bros Co. expects its EBIT to be $100,000 every year forever. The firm can borrow at 11 percent. Bruce currently has no debt, and
Liula [17]

Answer:

WACC=17.15%

Explanation;

MV of equity=EBIT8(1-t)/Ke          

MV of equity=100,000*(1-.31)/.18=$383,333  

Total value of the firm=Market value of equity+present value of tax savings on interest

Total value of the firm based on EBIT= $383,333+.31*61,000

Total Value of the firm=$402,243

Keg=Keu+(Keu-Kd)*D/E*(1-t)

where Keu= cost of equity of un-geared company=18%

Keg=cost of equity of geared company=?

Kd=cost of debt=11%

Keg=.18+(.18-11)*61,000/(402,243-61,000)*.69

Keg=.18+.0086

Keg=18.86%

NoW revised WACC will be

WACC=Keg*MV of equity+Kd(1-t)*cost of debt/(total value of firm)

WACC=.1886*(402,243-61,000)+.11(1-.31)*61,000/(402,243)

WACC=17.15%                

5 0
3 years ago
The cost, in dollars, to produce x designer dog leashes is C ( x ) = 8 x + 3 , and the price-demand function, in dollars per lea
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

<em><u>P (x)   = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>

Explanation:

The Profit function is the revenue minus the cost.

Revenue = Price x Quantity =  X.px = x(88-2x) = 88x - 2x^2

Therefore the profit function P (x):  

P (x)  =  88x - 2x^2 - (8x+3)

<em><u>P (x)   = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

To maximise profit we use the 1st order condition: dP(x)/dq = 0

Therefore,  80 - 4x = 0

4x = 80

x = 20

So 20 leashes maximises profit.

P(x) = 80(20) - 2(20)^2 - 3

<em><u> P = $803  </u></em>

<em><u /></em>

The price to charge would be:

<u><em>p (x) = 88 - 2(20) = $48</em></u>

<u><em>The best reason would be that the price is a bit expensive for a leash so most people would not buy it.</em></u>

6 0
3 years ago
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