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Bess [88]
3 years ago
5

On May 10, 2020, Crane Co. enters into a contract to deliver a product to Greig Inc. on June 15, 2020. Greig agrees to pay the f

ull contract price of $1,840 on July 15, 2020. The cost of the goods is $1,170. Crane delivers the product to Greig on June 15, 2020, and receives payment on July 15, 2020. Prepare the journal entries for Crane related to this contract. Either party may terminate the contract without compensation until one of the parties performs.
Business
1 answer:
belka [17]3 years ago
3 0

Answer and Explanation:

The journal entries are shown below:

1. Accounts receivable a/c Dr $1,840

            To Sales revenue a/c Cr  $1,840

(Being the sales is recorded)

2. Cost of goods sold a/c Dr $1,170

                  To Inventory a/c Cr $1,170

(Being the cost of goods sold is recorded)

3. Cash a/c Dr $1,840

          To Accounts receivable a/c Cr $1,840

(Being the payment received is recorded)

Only these three entries are recorded

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Four Seasons Hotels sell private residences in several of their properties and send direct mail to prospective residents asking
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

The correct answer is Lead generation.

Explanation:

A contact or lead is any user of a web page that, at a given time, provides us with their data in a form, thus losing their condition of anonymous visit and becoming a contact on which to track.

Lead acquisition would be all those actions or processes focused on getting contacts with which to nourish our database. In an inbound marketing project it would consist of the Convert or Conversion phase.

Basic characteristics of a lead:

  • The only data that is absolutely essential is the email address.
  • It is also mandatory that these leads have previously accepted the company's privacy policy since otherwise it is not legally possible to track them and send them more communications.
5 0
3 years ago
purchased goods for Rs 10000 and paid Rs 4000 in cash. The balance amount is paid through cheque after receiving discount Rs 500
Vsevolod [243]

purchased goods for Rs 10000 and paid Rs 4000 in cash. The balance amount is paid through cheque after receiving discount Rs 500.​

Total balance is 500

In economics, a good is anything that satisfies a person's needs and provides utility, such to a customer buying a satisfying product. Services that cannot be transferred and transferable products are two categories that are frequently distinguished. When a good is helpful to people but is in short supply compared to demand, it is said to be a "economic good" and requires human effort to attain.  Free things, on the other hand, like air, are always available and don't require any deliberate effort to obtain. Private goods include anything a person owns or uses on a regular basis that is unrelated to food, such as televisions, living room furnishings, wallets, cell phones, etc.

A consumer good, often known as a "ultimate good,"

Learn more about good here

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8 0
2 years ago
Samuelson will produce 20,000 units in January using level production. If each unit costs $500 to manufacture, what is the dolla
Likurg_2 [28]

Answer:

The dollar value of ending inventory is $7.500.000

Explanation:

To calculate the dollar value of ending inventory you need to use the next formula:

End inventory= (Beginning inventory + production - sales).$

In this case:

- Beginning inventory: 10.000 units

- January Production: 20.000 units

- Sales: 15.000 units

End inventory= 10000+20000-15000

End inventory= 15.000 units

Dollar value= 150000 . $500= $7.500.000

5 0
3 years ago
​a man borrows money from an automobile dealership to pay for a car. if he fails to repay the loan, the dealership will take pos
Setler [38]

Select one:

a. ​creditor, collateral, borrower

b. ​borrower, creditor, collateral

c. ​credit union, loan, creditor

d. ​loan, collateral, creditor

Answer: a - creditor, collateral, borrower.

The automobile dealership loans money to the man to buy a car. So, the automobile dealership is the creditor.

Collateral refers to anything that may be pledged in return for money, with the condition that the pledged item will be forfeited if the money is not repaid. Since the dealership will take possession of the car if the man fails to repay the money, it is a collateral.

The man who bought the car, owes money to the automobile dealership as he bought the car on a loan. So, he is a borrower.

7 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
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