Answer:
The question is incomplete, find complete question in the attached.
The receivables turnover for the current year is 9.02 times while average days sales in receivable is 41 days
Explanation:
The formula for computing receivables turnover ratio is given as:
Net credit sales/average accounts receivable,where average receivables is the opening plus closing receivables divided by two.
Net credit sales=$35,657
Average receivables =($3495+$4415)/2=$3955
Receivable turnover ratio=$35657/$3955
=9.02
Average days sales in receivable=number of days in the year/receivable turnover ratio
Average days sales in receivable=365/9.02
=40.47 days approx 41 days
The average days sales in receivable implies the average number of days it takes receivables to settle their accounts
Answer:
To no the prices of goods and service and to buy stuff at low prices.
Explanation:
A purely competitive market is a situation where multiplier sellers have homogeneous products. The availability of the information is very important in a purely competitive market in order to decide how many sellers are selling the same product and from where an individual can buy products at low prices. Availability of information means, no seller can earn abnormal profits.
Answer:
The question is missing the options which are below:
A Real risk-free rate differences.
B Tax effects.
C Default risk differences.
D Maturity risk differences.
E Inflation differences.
The correct answer is option C,default risk differences.
Explanation:
Default risk is the increase in return given to an investor to compensate the investor for the likely losses that may arise due to the inability of the borrower to make funds available to the investor on the maturity date or even in required amount.
Different debt instruments have different default risk depending on their credit rating as rated by international rating agencies.Such rating is a function of many factors,which includes:
Balance sheet position
Profitability
Liquidity strength of the company
Macro-economic factors and some others.
Liquidity refers to the ability of the company to settle obligations such as repayment of bonds and interest when due.
Invariably,liquidity has a higher impact in determining credit rating as well as default risk of an instrument.
If you need to indicate the missing ammount of each letter in the grahp then it will be like follows:
For the first case:
A = $9,600 + $5,000 + $8,000 = $22,600$22,600 + $1,000 – B = $17,000
B = $22,600 + $1,000 – $17,000 = $6,600$17,000 + C = $20,000
C = $20,000 – $17,000 = $3,000
D = $20,000 – $3,400 = $16,600
<span>E = ($24,500 – $2,500) – $16,600 = $5,400
</span><span>F = $5,400 – $2,500 = $2,900
</span>And now for the second case:
G + $8,000 + $4,000 = $16,000
G = $16,000 – $8,000 – $4,000 = $4,000$16,000 + H – $3,000 = $22,000
H = $22,000 + $3,000 – $16,000 = $9,000(I – $1,400) – K = $7,000(I – $1,400) – $22,800 = $7,000
<span>I = $1,400 + $22,800 + $7,000 = $31,200
</span>J = $22,000 + $3,300 = $25,300
K = $25,300 – $2,500 = $22,800$7,000 – L = $5,000
<span>L = $2,000</span>
Answer:
11%
Explanation:
Compounding is the method used to determine the future worth of an amount today while discounting is the method used to determine the present value of a future amount.
Both are related by
Fv = Pv(1 + r)^n
where Fv is the future amount
Pv is the present value
r = rate
n = time
As such,
18.5 = 15 (1 + r)^2
1.2333 = (1 + r)^2
1 + r = 1.11
r = 0.11
the annual percent on returns is 11%
