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Ivenika [448]
3 years ago
8

When using the analysis of receivables method for estimating uncollectible receivables, the amount computed in the analysis is u

sually the amount that would be recorded in the end-of-period adjusting entry.A. True.B. False
Business
1 answer:
kirill115 [55]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

When you use the analysis of receivables method for estimating uncollectible receivables you will use the age of the accounts receivables in order to determine whether or not they should be considered bad debt. Usually the company establishes a threshold, e.g. 6 months, and all the accounts receivables that have not been collected by that threshold are classified as estimated bad debt.

Under this method, estimated bad debts should equal the adjusted balance for allowance of doubtful accounts.

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On January 1, 2017, Eagle borrows $16,000 cash by signing a four-year, 5% installment note. The note requires four equal total p
goblinko [34]

Answer:

<u>Issuance - January 1, 2017</u>

Cash $16,000 (debit)

Note Payable $16,000 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2017</u>

Interest Expense $800 (debit)

Note Payable $3,712.19 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2018</u>

Interest Expense $614.39 (debit)

Note Payable $3,897.80 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2019</u>

Interest Expense $419.50 (debit)

Note Payable $4,092.69 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>December 31, 2020</u>

Interest Expense $214.87 (debit)

Note Payable $4,297.32 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

Explanation:

The Loan Amortization Schedule is most appropriate way to solve all parts of this problem.

The first step to construction of the Amortization Schedule is to determine the payments made annually, PMT (interest and principal).

Using a Financial calculator, this can be determined as ;

Pv = $16,000

r = 5%

n = 4

Fv = $0

p/yr = 1

Pmt = ?

Thus PMT is $4,512.19.

Amortisation Schedule (Extracted from Financial Calculator)

<u>2017</u>

Principle Payment = $3,712.19

Interest Payment = $800

Balance =  $12,287.81

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $800 (debit)

Note Payable $3,712.19 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2018</u>

Principle Payment = $3,897.80

Interest Payment = $614.39

Balance =  $8,390

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $614.39 (debit)

Note Payable $3,897.80 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2019</u>

Principle Payment = $4,092.69

Interest Payment = $419.50

Balance =  $4,297.32

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $419.50 (debit)

Note Payable $4,092.69 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

<u>2020</u>

Principle Payment = $4,297.32

Interest Payment = $214.87

Balance =  $0

Accounting Entries :

Interest Expense $214.87 (debit)

Note Payable $4,297.32 (debit)

Cash $4,512.19 (credit)

8 0
3 years ago
The account Unrealized Gain (Loss) on Available-for-Sale Investments should be included on the a.statement of retained earnings
Feliz [49]

Answer: b.balance sheet as an adjustment to stockholders' equity

Explanation:

Available-for-Sale Investments are investments by the company into other companies by means of owning their bonds or stocks. These bonds or stock are made available for selling and as such the company will not hold them to maturity.

For these types of instruments, the company will record the Unrealized Gains (losses) in Other Comprehensive Income. This is a part of the Equity Section of the balance sheet.

At the end of the period, the Unrealized Gains (losses) resulting from the Available for Sale Securities do not go to the income statement but rather are put into the Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income distinction in the Equity section of the balance sheet. You can find it right below the Retained Earnings line.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Outdoor Gear Corporation manufactured 1,000 coolers during October. The following variable overhead data relates to October: Var
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

$1,482 unfavorable

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the variable overhead flexible-budget variance

Using this formula

Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=Variable overhead spending variance Unfavorable + Variable overhead efficiency variance Unfavorable

Let plug in the formula

Variable overhead flexible-budget variance=$1,300 (U) + $182 (U)

Variable overhead flexible-budget variance= $1,482 (U)

Therefore the variable overhead flexible-budget variance is $1,482 unfavorable

8 0
3 years ago
_____________ are sunk costs because the company will have to pay the cost no matter production or other variables in operations
Lina20 [59]

Answer:

E. Fixed Costs

Explanation:

Here are the options to this question :

A. Variable Costs

B. Labor Costs

C. Total Costs

D. Raw material Costs

E. Fixed Costs

Sunk costs are costs that have already been incurred and cannot be recovered. They should not be considered when making future economic decisions.

Fixed cost is cost that do not vary with production. e.g. rent

Most companies pay rent per year. if due to unforeseen contingencies, sales and profit of the company declines and the company decides to shut down production, the company has already paid for rent, this amount cannot be recovered even though the company would not be using the space for sometime. So, rent is an example of sunk cost

6 0
3 years ago
Park &amp; company was recently formed with a $6,900 investment in the company by stockholders in exchange for common stock. the
yKpoI14uk [10]

<u>Calculation of Total Assets:</u>

Total assets based on the given transactions can be calculated as follows:


Cash Received from Investors $6,900

Add: Amount Borrowed from Local Bank $3,900

Add: Supplies Purchased on account $1,190

Add: Equipment purchased $6,900

Less: Cash Paid for purchase of equipment -$2,190


Total Assets = $16,700


Hence based on the given transactions, the company's total assets are <u>$16,700</u>





7 0
3 years ago
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