Answer:
Allocated administrative cost for mixing is $81000
And allocated administrative cost for for bottling is $81000
Explanation:
We have given total number of employs for mixing = 350
And total number of employs for bottling = 350
Administrative cost = $162000
So total number of employs = 350+350 = 700
So allocation base for mixing 
So allocated amount for mixing = 0.5×$162000 = $81000
Allocation base for bottling =
So allocated amount for bottling = 0.5×$162000 = $81000
Sales grow before any new fixed assets are needed is $156,480.
Fixed assets , additionally known as lengthy-lived assets or property, plant, and equipment, are a time period utilized in accounting for belongings and belongings that cannot without difficulty be converted into cash. fixed properties are one of a kind from modern assets, along with coins or bank accounts, due to the fact the latter is liquid belongings.
currently operating = 94 percent
current sales = $740,000
Full capacity sales = current sales/ Current capacity utilisation
= 500000/0.94
= $531,914.89
Percentage of fixed assets to full Capacity Sales = Fixed Assets / full Capacity Sales
= 400000/531914.89
= 0.752
Total Fixed assets Needed for New Sales = 74000*0.752
= 556480
Additional Fixed Assets needed = 556480 - 400000
= $156,480 answer.
Learn more about fixed assets here:-brainly.com/question/25746199
#SPJ4
Answer and Explanation:
A due on sale clause is simply a stipulation in the mortagage agreement that the
"borrower if he wants to sell the property to some other person, first of all he (borrower) shall repay the entire outstanding mortagage amount and then only it is possible to sell the property which is secured under Mortagage agreement.
Hence in essence, the borrower must repay before selling it to some other person which will result in paying the sale proceeds of house to the lender first and the Borrower again has to take loan sometimes from the same lender.
Hence it is imperative that the mortagage obligation cannot be transferred to any other person. That is any subsequent buyer cannot ASSUME the mortagage. Therefore due on sale
Clause prevents assuming of mortagages.
Answer:
The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.
Explanation:
Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.
As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.
Thus, (III) is the correct answer.
