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kari74 [83]
3 years ago
8

The actual cash received during the week ended October 31 for cash sales was $23,447 and the amount indicated by the cash regist

er total was $23,457. Journalize the entry to record the cash receipts and cash sales. If an amount box does not require an entry, leave it blank. Oct. 31 Cash 23,457 0 Cash Short and Over 10 0 Sales 0 23,447
Business
1 answer:
Rufina [12.5K]3 years ago
6 0

Explanation:

Data given in the question

Actual cash received = $23,447

But the amount indicated on the cash register is $23,457

So, by considering the above information, the journal entry is as follows

Cash $23,447

Cash short and over $10

         To Sales $23,457

(Being the cash receipts and the cash sales is recorded)

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On December 31, 2019, the unadjusted credit balance of the Allowance for Overvaluation of Inventories: Hope Branch ledger accoun
Zigmanuir [339]

Answer:

                                Journal entries

Date           Particulars                                    Debit         Credit

31, Dec 19  Investment in Branch Office     $132,000

                         To Inventories                                         $110,000

                         To Allowance for Overvaluation of        $20,000

                         Inventories

31, Dec 19    Profit and loss                          $18,400

                           To Investment in Branch Office            $18,400

31, Dec 19     Allowance for Overvaluation   $10,000

                     of Inventories

                           To Realized Gross Profit: Branch Sales  $10,000

Workings

1. Unrealized Inter-company Inventory Profit = (132,000/120) * 20 = $22,000

Shipment to Branch = 132,000 - 22,000 = $110,000

2. Unrealized Inter-company Inventory Profit = (60,000/120) * 2 = $10,000

5 0
2 years ago
Aerotron Electronics is considering the purchase of a water filtration system to assist in circuit board manufacturing. The syst
tino4ka555 [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

Annual worth: this will be the annuity payment equivalent to all the cashflow of the investment. Thus the PMT of the net present value

Cash Investment at F0: <em>230,000/2 = 115,000</em>

present value of 7,500 salvage value:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  7,500.00

time   7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{7500}{(1 + 0.1)^{7} } = PV  

PV  <em> 3,848.69 </em>

<u>Then, we need to calculate the present value of the loan discounted at 10%</u>

half the investment is finance: 230,000 / 2 = <em>115,000</em>

Then, this capitalize 2 year at 8% before the first payment:

Principal \: (1+ r)^{time} = Amount

Principal 115,000.00

time 2 year

MARR: 10% = 0.08000

115000 \: (1+ 0.08)^{2} = Amount

Amount 134,136.00

Now we need to discount this loan at 10% which is our rate of return:

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  134,136.00

time   2.00

MARR: 10% = 0.1

\frac{134136}{(1 + 0.1)^{2} } = PV  

PV   <em>110,856.20 </em>

Finally: we add this values to get the resent worth:

<em>115,000 +  110,856.20 - 3,848.69 = </em><em>222,007.51</em>

<em />

Last step, we calculate the PMT of the present worth:

PV \div \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = C\\

PV 222,007.51

time 7 years

MARR: 10% = 0.1

222007.51 \div \frac{1-(1+0.1)^{-7} }{0.1} = C\\

C  $ 45,601.564

<em />

6 0
3 years ago
When cash outflows temporarily exceed cash inflows, banks are most likely to experience:
Musya8 [376]
C. a negative duration on it's assets.
3 0
3 years ago
Marks Corporation has two operating departments, Drilling and Grinding, and an office. The three categories of office expenses a
Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

$44,377

Explanation:

Note: The answers (options) attached this question belongs to another question

Particulars                                                             Amount

Salaries ($48,000*1,200/3,500)                           $16,457

Depreciation ($24,000*$102,600/$270,000) $9,120

Advertising ($47,000*$346,000/$865,000) <u>$18,800</u>

Total                                                                       <u>$44,377</u>

5 0
2 years ago
Hardigree Corporation makes a product that has the following direct labor standards: Standard direct labor-hours 0.3 hours per u
djyliett [7]

Answer:

4,140 U

Explanation:

According to the scenario, calculation of the given data are as follows,

Actual Hours = 2,820 hours

Standard rate = $23 per hour

Standard direct labor hour = 0.3 hours

We can calculate labor efficiency variance by using following formula,

Labor Efficiency Variance = Actual hours standard cost  - Standard cost

Where, Actual hours standard Cost  = Actual hours × Standard rate

= 2,820 × 23

= 64,860

Standard Cost (8,800 units) = Standard hours (8,800 units) × Standard rate

= (8,800 × 0.3) × 23

= 60,720

Hence, by putting the value in the formula, we get

Labor Efficiency Variance  = 64,860 - 60,720

= 4,140 U

8 0
2 years ago
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