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dem82 [27]
2 years ago
9

Write an equivalent expression by distributing the "-−" sign outside the parentheses:

Mathematics
1 answer:
Diano4ka-milaya [45]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

jsjdjajj she jdjdjxjsjd

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State the X- and Y- intercepts of each function. <br><br> -1/2x + 3y = -3
Dafna1 [17]
For the equation -1/2x+3y=-3
 the x-intercept=6
 the y-intercept=-1
7 0
3 years ago
Haley works at a candy store. There are 10 types of bulk candy. Find the probability that one type of candy will be chosen more
DIA [1.3K]

Answer:

Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639

Step-by-step explanation:

This is a binomial experiment because

- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.

- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)

- The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials

x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1

p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10

q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90

P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)

P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401

P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489

P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291

P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639

Hope this Helps!!!

5 0
3 years ago
I WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST!!!
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

g(x) = (f-x)

Step-by-step explanation:

It's relection across the y axis

==> g(x) = (f-x)

6 0
3 years ago
I NEED HELP PLEASE! :)<br> thanks!
BigorU [14]

Add all the chips to find the total amount.

7 + 9 + 3 + 6 = 25 chips

Since there are 6 blue chips (6/25), that's the probability of just getting once.

When you pick a blue chip and it doesn't get replaced, then that means there is one fewer blue chip and one fewer from the total amount.

5/24

Multiply both probabilities.

6/25 * 5/24 = 30/600

Simplify.

30/600 → 1/20

Therefore, the answer is B

Best of Luck!

7 0
3 years ago
I need help on 6-98 can you please help me
OLga [1]
Molly got 20 because she did not follow the order of operations, so this is incorrect. Nancy got the correct answer because she multiplied 4 * 3, and then added 2, giving her 14. Molly added 3+2, and multiplied that by 4. Nancy is correct with 14.


4 0
3 years ago
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