Answer:
PV= $12,111.93 = $12,112
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Future Value (FV)= $150,000
Interest rate (i)= 8.75% = 0.0875
Number of periods (n)= 30
<u>To calculate the present value (PV), we need to use the following formula:</u>
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 150,000 / (1.0875^30)
PV= $12,111.93
Answer:
The company should buy the units because it will save $10,000.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Make in-house:
Unitary variable cost= 2 + 8 + 6= $16
Avoidable fixed cost= $8,000
Buy:
Unitary cost= $15
<u>First, we will determine the total cost of each option:</u>
Make in house= 2,000*16 + 8,000= $40,000
Buy= 15*2,000= $30,000
The company should buy the units because it will save $10,000.-
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Kilbuck Manufacturing operates in a lean manufacturing environment. Kilbuck’s actual conversion costs for the month of May follow:
<span><span>Direct and indirect labor $150,000
</span><span>Machine depreciation $85,000
</span><span>Maintenance and supplies $60,000
</span><span>Total conversion costs <span>$295,000
<span>The journal entry to record April's conversion costs will include:
</span>D. A debit to Raw and In Process Inventory
</span></span></span>Raw materials of all kinds are measured at the start<span> recorded into </span>a list plus<span> account with a debit to the raw materials inventory account and a credit to the accounts </span>collectible<span> account.When raw materials </span>are<span> consumed, the accounting treatment varies, </span>betting on<span> their </span>standing<span> as direct or indirect materials.</span>
Answer:
value of the firm = 21.20 million
value of the firm = 20.80 million
Explanation:
given data
current profits = $400,000
annual rate = 4 percent
opportunity cost = 6 percent
solution
we get here value of the firm before pays out current profits as dividend is express as
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+opportunity cost ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................1
put here value
value of the firm =
value of the firm = 21.20 million
and
value of the firm after pays is
value of the firm = current profits ( 1+annual rate ) ÷ ( opportunity cost - annual rate ) ................2
value of the firm =
value of the firm = 20.80 million