I think it’s 62 hope I’m right sorry if not
Answer:
the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Step-by-step explanation:
Since each bit is independent from the others , then the random variable X= number of 0 s in the code word follows a binomial distribution, where
p(X)= n!/((n-x)!*x!*p^x*(1-p)^(n-x)
where
n= number of independent bits=5
x= number of 0 s
p= probability that a bit is 0 = 0.8
then for x=1
p(1) = n*p*(1-p)^(n-1) = 5*0.8*0.2^4 = 0.0064 (0.64%)
therefore the probability that a code word contains exactly one zero is 0.0064 (0.64%)
Answer:


Step-by-step explanation:
Given
See attachment for graph
Solving (a): Increasing interval
To do this, we simply identify the interval at which the value of the graph increases.
The value has an increased interval between -2 and 1.5 (of the x-axis).
Hence, the increasing interval is:

Solving (b): Decreasing interval
To do this, we simply identify the interval at which the value of the graph decreases.
The value has decreased intervals between - infinity and -2 and also 1.5 and infinity (of the x-axis).
Hence, the decreasing interval is:
