Step-by-step explanation:
Please gimme brainliest
I hope it's correct
The answer would be 167 I believe
Answer:
4.39% theoretical probability of this happening
Step-by-step explanation:
For each coin, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it lands on heads, or it lands on tails. The probability of a coin landing on heads is independent of other coins. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.
Binomial probability distribution
The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

In which
is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

And p is the probability of X happening.
Theoretically, a fair coin
Equally as likely to land on heads or tails, so 
10 coins:
This means that 
What is the theoretical probability of this happening?
This is P(X = 2).


4.39% theoretical probability of this happening
50 hours!
825 (paycheck left over) + 25 (the shirt that was subtracted because he bought it) = $850 total
850 (total amount this week) / 17 (the amount he makes per hour) = 50 (total amount of hours worked this week)
Answer:
you're not doing anything wrong
Step-by-step explanation:
In order for cos⁻¹ to be a function, its range must be restricted to [0, π]. The cosine value that is its argument is cos(-4π/3) = -1/2. You have properly identified cos⁻¹(-1/2) to be 2π/3.
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Cos and cos⁻¹ are conceptually inverse functions. Hence, conceptually, cos⁻¹(cos(x)) = x, regardless of the value of x. The expected answer here may be -4π/3.
As we discussed above, that would be incorrect. Cos⁻¹ cannot produce output values in the range [-π, -2π] unless it is specifically defined to do so. That would be an unusual definition of cos⁻¹. Nothing in the problem statement suggests anything other than the usual definition of cos⁻¹ applies.
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This is a good one to discuss with your teacher.