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Jobisdone [24]
2 years ago
6

oss Music Inc. reported the following selected information at March 31. 2022 Total current assets $262,787 Total assets 439,832

Total current liabilities 293,625 Total liabilities 376,002 Net cash provided by operating activities 62,300 Calculate the current ratio, the debt to assets ratio, and free cash flow for March 31, 2022. The company paid dividends of $12,000 and spent $24,787 on capital expenditures. (Round current ratio and debt to assets ratio to 2 decimal places, e.g. 15.25. If answer is negative enter it with a negative sign preceding the number e.g. -15,000 or in parentheses e.g. (15,000).) Current ratio enter a current ratio rounded to 2 decimal places :1 Debt to assets enter debt to assets ratio in percentages rounded to 2 decimal places % Free cash flow $enter the free cash flow in dollars
Business
1 answer:
Alexxandr [17]2 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Please see below

Explanation:

a. Current ratio

= Total current assets / Total current liabilities

= $262,787 / $293,625

= 0.89

b. Debt to assets ratio

= Total current liabilities / Total assets

= $293,625 / $439,832

= 0.67

c. Free cash flow

= Net cash provided by operating activities - Dividends - Capital expenditure

= $62,300 - $12,000 - $24,787

= $15,685

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diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}

= inflows * 3.8887

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 =  962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 =  962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

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2 years ago
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The configuration change will enable the System Administrator to help the Sales Reps remember is to enable the opportunity setting to prompt users to add products to opportunities.

<h3>What is a configuration change?</h3>

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<em>brainly.com/question/14364696</em>

7 0
2 years ago
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Answer:

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Explanation:

The computation of the cash flow from investing activities is shown below:

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3 years ago
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ss7ja [257]
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20*3=60
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Answer:

C. I, II, III

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