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solniwko [45]
3 years ago
13

Suppose that the United States and Canada both produce only two products, televisions and food. The United States can produce 10

0 televisions a day, 150 pounds of food a day, or any combination in between. (For example, the United States could produce 100 televisions and no food, 50 televisions and 75 pounds of food, or 150 pounds of food and no televisions.) Canada can produce 300 televisions a day, 330 pounds of food a day, or any combination in between. What is the United States’ opportunity cost for producing 1 pound of food?
a. two-thirds of a television
b. 1.5 televisions
c. 100 televisions
d. 150 televisions
Business
1 answer:
algol133 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Option A. Two - Third of a television

Explanation:

Using Unitary Method,

Here, the opportunity cost of producing 150 pounds of food in US = 100 televisions

Similary the opportunity cost of producing 1 pound of food in US = 100 / 150 televisions = 0.66 televisions = 2/3 televisions

So the right option is A.

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Savallas Company is highly automated and uses computers to control manufacturing operations. The company uses a job-order costin
Setler79 [48]

Answer:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate  = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

Explanation:

Part 1.  Compute the company%u2019s predetermined overhead rate for the year

Predetermined overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Activity

                                                    = $1,275,000/ 85,000

                                                    = $15 / Computer Hour

Part 2. Compute the underapplied or overapplied overhead for the year.

Applied Overheads = Actual hours × Predetermined overhead rate

                                 = 60,000 × $15

                                 =  $900,000

Actual Overheads = given = $1,350,000

Applied Overheads $900,000 < Actual Overheads $1,350,000, thus we have an underapplied situation

Therefore Underapplied Overheads are: $1,350,000 -  $900,000 = $450,000

Part 3.  Assume the company closes any underapplied or overapplied overhead directly to cost of goods sold. Prepare the appropriate journal entry.

Cost of goods sold $450,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000 (credit)

Part 4. Company allocates any underapplied or overapplied overhead to work in process, finished goods, and cost of goods sold on the basis of the amount of overhead applied during the year that remains in each account at the end of the year:

Allocations:

                                         Totals          Weighted Average%       Allocation

Work In Process              $43,200                   4%                           $18,000

Finished Goods              $280,800               26%                           $73,008

Cost of Goods Sold        $756,000               70%                          $315,000

Total                                $1,080,000            100%                         $450,000

Journals:

Work In Process $18,000 (debit)

Finished Goods $73,008 (debit)

Cost of Goods Sold $315,000 (debit)

Overhead Account $450,000(credit)

5 0
3 years ago
Tier 1 enterprise resource planning vendors such as sap and oracle are more appealing to large firms due to ________.
ycow [4]
Tier 1 enterprise resources planning ...................................... due to OPPORTUNITIES FOR CORPORATE-WIDE STANDARDIZATION.
A tier 1 enterprise resource enterprise refers to companies that are direct suppliers for an original equipment manufacturer. Companies prefer dealing with such companies due to the opportunities attached.
6 0
3 years ago
Portfolio AB has half of its funds invested in Stock A and half in Stock B. Portfolio ABC has one third of its funds invested in
Anit [1.1K]

Answer:

a) Portfolio ABC's expected return is 10.66667%.

Explanation:

Some information is missing:

Stock                Expected         Standard             Beta

                         return              deviation

A                            10%                 20%                 1.0

B                            10%                  10%                 1.0

C                            12%                  12%                 1.4

The expected return or portfolio AB = (1/2 x 10%) + (1/2 x 10%) = 10% (it is the same as the required rate for stock A or B)

The expected return or portfolio ABC = (weight of stock A x expected return of stock A) +  (weight of stock B x expected return of stock B) + (weight of stock C x expected return of stock C) = (1/3 x 10%) + (1/3 x 10%) + (1/3 x 12%) = 3.333% + 3.333% + 4% = 10.667% <u>THIS IS CORRECT</u>

Options B, C, D and E are wrong.

5 0
2 years ago
Kkenneth caplan is a salaried employee who normally works a 371⁄2-hour week and is paid a weekly salary of $675.00. the agreemen
Natali [406]
The gross pays is 675.00
4 0
2 years ago
Cartier corporation currently sells its products for $50 per unit. the company's variable costs are $20 per unit. fixed expenses
charle [14.2K]
The answer is 40%, in which the following are given: the Variable expense is equal to 20 dollars per unit and Sales is equal to 50 dollars per unit. Use the formula Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales to get the answer. 

Variable Expense Ratio = Variable Expenses / Sales
Variable Expense Ratio = 20 dollars per unit / 50 dollars per unit
Variable Expense Ratio = 40 %

The variable expense ratio is an expression of variable production costs of the company as a percentage of sales, calculated as variable expense divided by total sales. It compares a cost that alters with levels of production to the number of revenues generated by production.
8 0
3 years ago
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