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skelet666 [1.2K]
3 years ago
11

Which ordered pair needs needs to be removed in order for the mapping to represent a function?

Mathematics
2 answers:
melomori [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

b-(-2,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Fed [463]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

b - (-2,-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

A function is a mapping in which each element of the domain, or input, is mapped to one element of the range, or output.

In this mapping, the input value -2 is mapped to both 2 and -1; this makes the points (-2, 2) and (-2, -1).  If one of these two was removed, the mapping becomes a function.

The only one of these listed in the values given is (-2, -1).

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If it costs $4.77 for 9 oranges how much would it cost for 1?
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

1.89

Step-by-step explanation:

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4 years ago
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How do you write 176% as a fraction
Sholpan [36]
The answer is 1 19/25

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5 0
3 years ago
Karen has 1/6 of her drink left and Michelle has 2/16 of hers left. Who has more?
Trava [24]
Karen has more of her drink left

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Since 1/6> 1/8, Karen has more of her drink left

Hope this helps :)
5 0
3 years ago
Solve the given inequality and graph the solution on a number line -x/2 + 3/2 < 5/2
Daniel [21]
The correct answer is x>-2.  The graph is attached.

To solve this:

-x/2 + 3/2 < 5/2

Subtract 3/2 from both sides:
-x/2 + 3/2 - 3/2 < 5/2 - 3/2
-x/2 < 2/2
-x/2 < 1

Multiply both sides by 2:
(-x/2)*2 < 1*2
-x < 2

Divide both sides by -1:
-x/-1 < 2/-1

Remember to flip the the symbol since you divide both sides by a negative:
x > -2

To graph the inequality, we draw a number line, making sure we have -2 on it.  We circle -2 and leave it open, since it is strictly greater than.  Then we shade the line to the left.

3 0
3 years ago
When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values. True or false
iragen [17]

Answer:

Thus, the statement is False!

Step-by-step explanation:

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.

For example:

Considering a function

f(x) = 5

Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.

But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.

Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.

Thus, the statement is False!

3 0
3 years ago
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