Hello,
tan KLJ=6/8=3/4
=> mes angle KLJ=36.8698976558...°≈36.87 °
Answer B.
Answer:
r=2
Step-by-step explanation:
y = k x^r is the formula for a direct variation
y = k x^ -r is the formula for a indirect variation
20= 5 (1/2)^ -r
Divide each side by 5
4 = (1/2) ^ -r
Rewriting
2^2 = 2^ -1 ^ -r
2^2 = 2 ^ r
The bases are the same so
2 =r
Take off 3 of the pennies and the 5 that remain would be 3 nickels and 2 dimes
2 dimes=20 cents
3 nickels = 15 cents
3 pennies=3 cents
Or these 8 coins = 38 cents
Answer:
120ft
Step-by-step explanation:
If the bases are 120ft apart from each other you would have to find the distance of going from first to second then to third. Then you divide it in half because you arent going around the diamond, you are cutting right through it.
Answer:
it would be 12 righhht?? because if each bunch is 6 and she has 2 bunches you would add 6+6 and get 12!! i thinkkkk or multiply :))
Step-by-step explanation:
