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Ksivusya [100]
2 years ago
13

Raul has $40

Mathematics
2 answers:
Oksi-84 [34.3K]2 years ago
8 0
The answer to the problem is b
expeople1 [14]2 years ago
8 0

Let, amount of money he can spend on the present before tax=p


The tax on present of cost p =6% of p=0.06p


Amount of money he spent on present after tax= p +0.06p=1.06p


the amount he can spent should be less than 40


So, 1.06p≤40


To get the value of p, let us divide by 1.06 on both sides


\frac{1.06}{1.06}p \leq\frac{40}{1.6}


\frac{1}{1}p \leq 37.73


p≤37.73 or 37.73≥p


Answer:Option (b)

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Answer: The variables have a weak positive correlation

Since r > 0, the correlation is positive. It's a weak correlation because r is closer to 0 than it is to 1.

5 0
3 years ago
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220 students were asked if they liked chocolate or vanilla ice cream. 140 said they liked chocolate and 120 said they liked vani
Flura [38]

Answer: D. 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Given: Number of students liked vanilla or chocolate ice cream =n(V\cup C)=220

Number of students liked chocolate =n(C)=140

Number of students liked vanilla=n(V)=120

Now,  Number of students liked vanilla and chocolate ice cream is given by :-

n(V\cap C)=n(C)+n(V)-n(V\cup C)\\\\\Rightarrown(V\cap C)=140+120-220\\\\\Rightarrown(V\cap C)=260-220\\\\\Rightarrown(V\cap C)=40

Number of students liked vanilla and chocolate ice cream= 40

6 0
3 years ago
Hey can you please help me posted picture of question
Ronch [10]
The formulas for conditional probability are:
P(A\cap B')=P(A)\cdot P(B'|A)
P(A\cap B')=P(B')\cdot P(A|B').
Since P(A\cap B')= \frac{1}{6} and p(B')= \frac{7}{18}, you have the equation \frac{1}{6} = \frac{7}{18} \cdot P(A|B').
Therefore, P(A|B')= \frac{1}{6} : \frac{7}{18} =\frac{1}{6} \cdot \frac{18}{7} = \frac{3}{7}.
Answer: The correct choice is D.


8 0
3 years ago
How do you 'undo' addition?
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8 0
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1/150 : 2 = 1/200: X
NeTakaya

Answer:

The value of X is X=\frac{3}{2}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given : \frac{1}{150} : 2=\frac{1}{200} : X

To find : The value of X ?

Solution :

\frac{1}{150} : 2=\frac{1}{200} : X

Converting ratios into fraction,

\frac{\frac{1}{150}}{2}=\frac{\frac{1}{200}}{X}

\frac{1}{150\times 2}=\frac{1}{200\times X}

Cross multiply,

200X=300

X=\frac{300}{200}

X=\frac{3}{2}

Therefore, The value of X is X=\frac{3}{2}

7 0
3 years ago
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