520.83 cents take the amount divide it by 12 then 2.
Answer:
the last part of the question is missing, so I looked for it:
a. Randy received $2,200 of interest this year and no other investment income or expenses. His AGI is $75,000.
b. Randy had no investment income this year, and his AGI is $75,000.
a) Randy can deduct $31,575:
- the mortgage interest is deductible
- the car loan interest is not deductible
- he can deduct $4,725 - $2,200 = $2,525 as investment interest expense
b) Randy can deduct $29,050
- the mortgage interest is deductible
- the car loan interest is not deductible
- since he had no investment revenue, he cannot deduct any investment interest expense
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Retained earnings have no flotation costs, but have opportunity costs. For example, if companies distribute the earnings to shareholders, shareholders can invest the funds in alternative sources for returns.
Answer:
1. <em>If this law of contributory negligence applies to the state, then Ramona will receive no compensation for the damages she sustained. </em>
<em>
</em>2<em>. If this law of comparative negligence applies to this state, then Ramona will get 100% - 20% = 80% of the damages incurred in the accident, from John which will be $80,000</em>
<em />
Explanation:
In contributory negligence, the defense completely bars plaintiffs from any recovery if they contribute to their own injury through their own negligence.
<em>If this law of contributory negligence applies to the state, then Ramona will receive no compensation for the damages she sustained. </em>
<em>
</em>
In comparative negligence, the plaintiff's damages is award by the percentage of fault that the fact-finder assigns to the plaintiff for his or her own injury i.e the plaintiff's damage compensation is reduced by percentage of his/her percentage of fault.
<em>If this law of comparative negligence applies to this state, then Ramona will get 100% - 20% = 80% of the damages incurred in the accident, from John</em>
this is 80% of $100,00 which is equal to <em>$80,000</em>
Answer and Explanation:
1. The preferred stock is non-cumulative, and in previous years, the company has not skipped any dividends.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage
= 3300 × $103 × 7%
= $23,793
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $23,793
= $99,707
2. The preferred stock is non-cumulative, and in both of the two previous years, the company did not pay a dividend.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage
= 3300 × $103 × 7%
= $23,793
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $23,793
= $99,707
3. The preferred stock is cumulative, and in both of the two previous years the company did not pay a dividend.
Dividend paid to preferred shareholders = Shares × Par value preferred stock × Shares percentage × Number of years
= 3,300 × $103 × 7% × 3
= $71,379
Dividend paid to common shareholders = Cash dividend - Dividend paid to preferred shareholders
= $123,500 - $71,379
= $52,121
