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Vedmedyk [2.9K]
3 years ago
6

A company should accrue a loss contingency only if the likelihood that a liability has been incurred is:At least reasonably poss

ible and the amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated.Probable and the amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated.More likely than not and the amount of the loss is known.At least reasonably possible and the amount of the loss is known.
Business
1 answer:
Fittoniya [83]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

The answer is: Probable and the amount of the loss can be reasonably estimated.

Explanation:

Losses should be recorded as soon as possible (conservatism principle) as long as they are probable and can be reasonably estimated. A loss doesn't have to occur to be recorded, that is why they are recorded as contingency losses. If the company finds it probable that a loss will happen but can't estimate it, then it can't record it as a contingency loss.  

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Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments. Return (%) Standard Deviation (%) Treasury bills 4.5 0 Stock P 8.
Jlenok [28]

Answer:

a. Standard deviation of the portfolio = 7.00%

b(i) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 30.00%

b(ii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 4.00%

b(iii) Standard deviation of the portfolio = 21.40%

Explanation:

Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question as follows:

Here are returns and standard deviations for four investments.

                                  Return (%)           Standard Deviation (%)

Treasury bills                4.5                                    0

Stock P                          8.0                                   14

Stock Q                        17.0                                  34

Stock R                       21.5                                    26

Calculate the standard deviations of the following portfolios.

a. 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

b. 50% each in Q and R, assuming the shares have:

i. perfect positive correlation

ii. perfect negative correlation

iii. no correlation

(Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answers as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

The explanation to the answer is now provided as follows:

a. Calculate the standard deviations of 50% in Treasury bills, 50% in stock P. (Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places.)

Since there is no correlation between Treasury bills and stocks, it therefore implies that the correlation coefficient between the Treasury bills and stock P is zero.

The standard deviation between the Treasury bills and stock P can be calculated by first estimating the variance of their returns using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WT^2 * SDT^2) + (WP^2 * SDP^2) + (2 * WT * SDT * WP * SDP * CFtp) ......................... (1)

Where;

WT = Weight of Stock Treasury bills = 50%

WP = Weight of Stock P = 50%

SDT = Standard deviation of Treasury bills = 0

SDP = Standard deviation of stock P = 14%

CFtp = The correlation coefficient between Treasury bills and stock P = 0.45

Substituting all the values into equation (1), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 0^2) + (50%^2 * 14%^2) + (2 * 50% * 0 * 50% * 14% * 0) = 0.49%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.49%)^(1/2) = (0.49)^0.5 = 7.00%

b. 50% each in Q and R

To calculated the standard deviation 50% each in Q and R, we first estimate the variance using the following formula:

Portfolio return variance = (WQ^2 * SDQ^2) + (WR^2 * SDR^2) + (2 * WQ * SDQ * WR * SDR * CFqr) ......................... (2)

Where;

WQ = Weight of Stock Q = 50%

WR = Weight of Stock R = 50%

SDQ = Standard deviation of stock Q = 34%

SDR = Standard deviation of stock R = 26%

b(i). assuming the shares have perfect positive correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 1) = 9.00%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^(1/2) = (9.00%)^0.5 = 30.00%

b(ii). assuming the shares have perfect negative correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = -1

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * (-1)) = 0.16%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^(1/2) = (0.16%)^0.5 = 4.00%

b(iii). assuming the shares have no correlation

This implies that:

CFqr = The correlation coefficient between stocks Q and = 0

Substituting all the values into equation (2), we have:

Portfolio return variance = (50%^2 * 34%^2) + (50%^2 * 26%^2) + (2 * 50% * 34% * 50% * 26% * 0) = 4.58%

Standard deviation of the portfolio = (Portfolio return variance)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^(1/2) = (4.58%)^0.5 = 21.40%

8 0
3 years ago
suppose that aggregate demand is falling for several months in a row. describe how the economy will adjust in the long run.
Salsk061 [2.6K]

If aggregate demand in the long run is falling for several months in a row, it will make aggregate market results in an increase in the price level but no change in real production. The level of real production resulting from the aggregate demand shock is full-employment real production.

Aggregate demand can be described as a measurement of the total amount of demand for all finished services and goods produced in an economy. Aggregate demand is expressed as the total amount of money exchanged for those services and goods at a specific point in time and price level.

The model of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply predicts that the economy will eventually move toward its potential output. To see how nominal wage and price stickiness can cause real GDP to be either above or below potential in the short run, consider the response of the economy to a change in aggregate demand.

Learn more about aggregate demand in the link brainly.com/question/14375684

#SPJ4

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A matrix organization is any organization in which the project manager or project team leader actually shares responsibility for
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Answer:

True

Explanation:

Since a matrix organisation is when an individual report to more than one supervisor or leader. Therefore the relationship is referred to solid line or dotted line reporting

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poizon [28]

Answer:

I would say answer number 3. Debit cards access money in your account and credit cards are like a loan.

Explanation:

My reasoning for this is debit card you have the amount you put on it no more and no less. With credit cards you can use money that you do not have and you can pay it back later.

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Southern gardeners normally pay $5 for a 2-cubit-foot bag of pine bark mulch that they buy at their local gardening-supply and h
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