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tekilochka [14]
3 years ago
14

Cash donations to public charities are limited to % of a taxpayer's AGI. Donations of capital gain property to public charities

are generally limited to % of a taxpayer's AGI. And, donations of certain capital gain property to private nonoperating foundations are limited to % of AGI.
Business
1 answer:
Blababa [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Cash donations to public charities are limited to % of a taxpayer's AGI? Cash donations can be deducted to a maximum of 60% of your AGI.

Donations of capital gain property to public charities are generally limited to % of a taxpayer's AGI? If you hold the assets (whether stock or property) for more than one year, donations can be deducted (at fair market value) to a maximum of 30% of your AGI.

Donations of certain capital gain property to private non operating foundations are limited to % of AGI? When you donate short term capital gain property to private non operating foundations you can deduct up to 30% of your AGI.

You might be interested in
. Resource utilization charts based on each activity’s latest start time are said to be based on an ____ schedule. a. as-soon-as
Genrish500 [490]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "B": as-late-as-possible.

Explanation:

Primavera P6 is a Project Management Program useful to plan, schedule, execute, and control projects. In scheduling, there are constraints such as the As-Late-As-Possible (ALAP) which is used to delay a project's start without affecting its completion. For manufacturers using the Just-In-Time (JIT) inventory ALAP will be beneficial since the arrival of the raw materials must be delayed until it reaches the plant.

8 0
3 years ago
Which is a feature of a perfectly competitive market?
levacccp [35]

Answer: products are standardized or homogeneous

Explanation:

 Products are standardized or homogeneous for the perfectly competitive market as, in the case of the competitive industry there are no barriers in the industry to entry. The products are homogeneous in the nature and there is large numbers of the firms are perfectly substituted in the industry. So, the price elasticity of the demand for the firm product is infinite.

8 0
3 years ago
With a​ downward-sloping demand​ curve, average revenue is equal to price A. because the firm must lower its price to sell addit
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

D. ​Actually, average revenue is always equal to​ price, whether demand is downward sloping or no

Explanation:

This is because Average revenue is the amount of revenue that is obtained by selling an addition unit of output. This additional revenue is always = Price as proven by the equation below,

Total Revenue = Price * Quantity

Thus, AR = Total Revenue / Quantity  

Input elements of the Total revenue we get,

AR = Price * Quantity / Quantity

AR = Price  

Hope that helps.

3 0
3 years ago
Kelly Company issued $100,000 of 5%, 10-year bonds at 102 to a single investor. Each of the $1,000 bonds was convertible into 10
Angelina_Jolie [31]

Answer:

The amount credited to common stock upon conversion of the bonds is $101000

Explanation:

When the bond was issued there would been a debit of $102000($100000*$102/$100) to cash account and credit of $102000 to liabilities split into $100000 bonds payable and $2000 bond premium.

However, on conversion to common stock with premium of $1000 outstanding in the books,the amount to be credited into common stock account is the issue value less outstanding premium.

The amount credited to common stock=$102000-$1000=$101000

This can be shown with entries below:

Dr Bond payable     $100000

Dr Bond premium    $1000

Cr Common stock                      $101000

3 0
3 years ago
On January 2, 2009, L Co. issued at par $20,000 of 4% bonds convertible in total into 1,000 shares of L's common stock. No bonds
MrRissso [65]

Answer:

The correct answer is $1.2 per share.

Explanation:

According to the scenario, the computation of the given data are as follows:

Interest expense of Bonds = $20,000 × 4% = $800

Now, Interest expense of Bond, After tax = $800 × ( 1 - 50%) = $800 × 0.50

= $400

So, we can calculate the diluted earning by using following formula:

Diluted Earning = (Net income + Interest expense after tax) ÷ Total outstanding shares outstanding

Where, Total outstanding shares = 1,000 shares + 1,000 shares = 2,000 shares

By putting the value, we get

Diluted earning = ($2000 + $400 ) ÷ 2,000

= $1.2 per share

4 0
3 years ago
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