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Mama L [17]
4 years ago
14

Is the figure a rectangle? Explain.

Mathematics
2 answers:
steposvetlana [31]4 years ago
7 0

I believe the answer is B.

Good luck!

charle [14.2K]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the answer is No,it's not a rectangle the sides of the parallelogram do not meet at right angles

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The figure shows two parallel lines cut by a transversal.
max2010maxim [7]

Answer: D and E

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What is the slope of a line parallel to the line whose equation is 3x – 3y = -45.
Karolina [17]

Answer:

One

Step-by-step explanation:

A parallel line has the same slope of the original graph. Because of this, all we need to do is put the equation you gave into slop-intercept form, or:

<em>y</em> = <em>mx</em> + <em>b</em>

Don't forget that <em>m </em>is the slope, and <em>b</em> is the y-intercept!

3<em>x</em> - 3<em>y </em>= 45

-3<em>y</em> = -3<em>x</em> + 45

<em>y</em> = <em>x</em> + 15

Compare this to the equation of the slope-intercept form and look for <em>m:</em>

<em>y</em> =<em> mx</em> + <em>b</em>

There's nothing in front of the variable! No worries, that's the same thing as saying 1<em>x</em>.

But mathematicians are a little lazy (lol) and they don't want to mistake the number 1 for the lowercase letter <em>L </em>or a capital <em>i. </em>Because of that, they made 1<em>x</em> equal <em>x.</em>

Long story short, the slope for the equation (3<em>x</em> – 3<em>y</em> = -45) is one. And because parallel lines have the same slope as their original counterparts, the slope is one as well!

I recommend trying a few other problems like these. You'll end up using them a lot in the future!

Good luck and keep studying!

5 0
3 years ago
Your friend is 1.2 times taller than you. Your friend is 64.5 inches tall. How tall are you?
Pavel [41]
You are 53.75 inches tall.

5 0
3 years ago
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What is the answer? I guessed a but I'm not sure.
Korolek [52]
36\div9=2n\\&#10;4=2n\\&#10;n=2&#10;
4 0
4 years ago
My sister needs help !!!!!!!
yuradex [85]
A coin has one of two outcomes: heads or tails.
Each has an equal probability of occurring, meaning that they each have a 50% chance to occur. (They need to add up to 100% because they include all the outcomes, divide that into two equal parts and...)

This is what we call theoretical probability. It's a guess as to how probability <em>should</em> work. Like in the experiment, it's not always going to be 50-50.

What <em>actually happens</em> is called experimental probability. This may vary slightly from theoretical probability because you can't predict probability with complete certainty, you can only say what is <em>most likely to happen</em>.

We want to find the probability of getting heads in our experiment so we can compare it to the theoretical outcome. To do this, we need to compare the number of heads to the total number of outcomes.

We have 63 heads, and a total of 150 coin flips.
That makes the probability of getting a heads 63/150.
The hard part is getting this ratio into a percent.

You can try simply dividing, but you should be able to notice something here.
SInce the top and the bottom of our fraction are both divisible by 3, we can <em>simiplify</em>.
63 ÷ 3 = 21
150 ÷ 3 = 50
So we could say that 63/150 = 21/50.

A percent is basically a fraction out of 100.
Just like you can divide the parts of a ratio by the same number and it will stay the same, you can also multiply. To get the fraction out of 100, let's multiply by 2.
(since 50 × 2 = 100)

21 × 2 = 42
50 × 2 = 100
21/50 = 42/100 = 42%

Comparing our experimental probability to the theoretical one...it is 8% lower.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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