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tankabanditka [31]
3 years ago
11

A 16-year-old female applied for a conventional loan in order to purchase a condominium. The lender denied the application, citi

ng the applicant's age as the reason for the denial. Which of these is TRUE?
a. The lender violated the ECOA because the applicant is female and sex cannot be a lending consideration.
b. The lender violated the ECOA because lending decisions cannot be based on age.
c. The lender lawfully denied the application because the applicant was under 18 and therefore was too young to legally sign a contract.
d. None of these.
Business
1 answer:
aksik [14]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

The lender lawfully denied the application because the applicant was under 18 and therefore was too young to legally sign a contract.

A 16 year old is not up to the age to sign a contract and even at that Every lender has their own requirements for approving a loan. And for a person who is just 16 getting a loan approval is going to be near impossible except it is done with the cosignature of a parent. This is because several checks are usually done before a loan is approved and a 16 year old may not pass all of them.

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Which one of the following correctly describes the dividend yield? Multiple Choice Next year's annual dividend divided by today'
Debora [2.8K]

Answer:

Next year's annual dividend divided by today's stock price

Explanation:

Dividend yield is a financial ratio which is used by investors to assess a company's annual dividend payout in comparison of its stock price. The formula for dividend yield ratio is :

Annual dividend / Stock price

The annual dividend used is the most recent dividend paid or is to be paid to shareholders of the company. It enables investors to assess the return on their investment in each stock price. Dividend yield increases when companies pay more dividends. It is a good signaling effect for shareholders.

4 0
4 years ago
Tommy, a senior at State College, receives free room and board as full compensation for working as a resident adviser at the uni
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

Consider the following explanation

Explanation:

The meals value of $800 should be included in Gross Income the reason being there was option of receiving the same in cash .

The housing value and lodging value should not be included in gross income since it was give as condition of employment as full compensation for working as a resident adviser at the University dormitory.

7 0
4 years ago
The Coffee Cup Company had a credit balance of $500 in interest payable at the beginning of the period, and a credit balance of
Klio2033 [76]

Answer:

The adjustment to net income for the period will be reported as:

Debit Interest expense ($600 - $500)                 $100

Credit Interest payable                                          $100

<em>(Being interest expense for the period)</em>

Explanation:

Interest payable is the accumulation of the interest expense in the balance sheet overa specific period of time agreed with the creditor. When it becomes payable, the interest payable account is debited while cash is credited.

The interest payable in the Coffee Cup Company's account increased from $500 (credit balance) to $600 credit balance. This means there would have been an additional $100 interest expense recorded during the period in order to increase it to $600.

4 0
4 years ago
Present Value Computations
Rama09 [41]

Answer:

The present value on January 1, 2016, of $30,000 due on January 1, 2020, and discounted at 10% compounded annually is $ 20,490.40  

The present value on January 1, 2016, of $40,000 due on January 1, 2020, and discounted at 11% compounded semiannually is $ 26,063.95  

The present value on January 1, 2016, of $50,000 due on January 1, 2020, and discounted at 16% compounded quarterly is $ 26,695.41  

Explanation:

The present value formula is given as PV=FV*(1+rs/t)^-nt

where FV is the future worth of the amount

rs is the stated interest

t is the number of compounding per year

n is the number of years of investment which 4 years in this case

PV of $30,000 compounded annually:

PV=$30,000*(1+10%/1)^-(1*4)=$20,490.40  

PV of $40,000 compounded semiannually:

PV=$40,000*(1+11%/2)^-(2*4)=$ 26,063.95  

PV of $50,000 compounded quarterly:

PV=$50,000*(1+16%/4)^-(4*4)=$26,695.41  

7 0
3 years ago
Prime Corp. has an ending balance in the accounts receivable account of $100,000. Prime recorded bed debt expense of $3000. Prim
Lelu [443]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Prime's net realizable value of accounts receivable = accounts receivable balance - allowance for uncollectible accounts = $100,000 - $7,000 = $93,000

Bad debt expenses have already been debited, so they are no longer part of the allowance for uncollectible accounts.

5 0
3 years ago
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