<span>The answer is that the fraction of 1/2 pint is 1 cup. To solve this you must know the equivalence between pints and cups, and use the notion of proportions. Two cups equal one pint. Then you can state this proportion: 1 pint / 2 cups = x pint / 1 cup. When you solve for x you get: x = 1/2. Which means that 1 cup is 1/2 of 1 pint. </span>
Answer:
Z= V/QT
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:C
Step-by-step explanation: I believe it is C according to my calculations
Step-by-step explanation:
let d+e=2 be equation 1
let d-e=4 be equation 2
lets make d the subject in equa 1
d = 2-e equation 3
put equation 3 in 2
2-e=4
e=2-4
e=-2
put e=-2 in equa 1
d-2=2
d=4
e is -2 and d is 4
A study of 600 college students taking statistics 101 revealed that 54 students received the grade of
a. Typically 10% of the class gets an A
b. The difference between this group of students and the expected value is not significant at the 0.05 level. what does this mean in this case?
Your answer would mean that, =====> The probability of getting an A is 10% and only 9% got an A, in this study. The difference is less than 5% therefore, in this case, it is not significant.
Hope that helps!!!! : )
