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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
5

Which of the following is the most likely strategy for a U.S. firm that will be receiving Swiss francs in the future and desires

to avoid exchange rate risk (assume the firm has no offsetting position in francs.? A. purchase a call option on francs. B. sell a futures contract on francs. C. obtain a forward contract to purchase francs forward. D. all of the above are appropriate strategies for the scenario described.
Business
1 answer:
Sveta_85 [38]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The answer is C.

Explanation:

The US firm is using derivatives to hedge against the risk of Swiss francs falling.

A futures contract is the type of contract that two parties (one the buyer and the other the seller) the buyer will purchase an underlying asset(Swiss francs) from the seller at a later date in the future and at a price agreed by both parties. Futures is a standardized derivatives and it is traded in exchange.

To sell a futures contract or forward contract means the seller is anticipating fall or drop in value or price of the underlying asset (Swiss francs) and we say the seller is holding a short position.

While to buy a futures contract or forward contract means the buyer is anticipating an increase or rise in value or price of the underlying asset (Swiss francs) and we say the seller is holding a long position.

So since the US firm is anticipating a fall in value of Swiss francs, he will sell a futures contract on the Swiss francs

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Answer:

b. $10,000 loss $4,000 gain

Explanation:

Since the carrying amount of the intangible assets is greater than its recoverable amount in the year 1, therefore the Lawson Corp shall recognised the impairment loss in respect of intangible assets in year 1 as follows:

Impairment loss=Carrying amount of intangible assets-recoverable amount of intangible asset

Impairment loss=$100,000-$90,000=$10,000 loss

Since the recoverable amount of the intangible assets is greater than its carrying amount  in the year 2, therefore the Lawson Corp shall reverse the impairment loss recognised in year 1 in the following way:

Gain=recoverable amount of intangible asset-Carrying amount of intangible assets

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So based on the above calculations,the answer shall be b. $10,000 loss $4,000 gain

4 0
3 years ago
Viral Marketing, Inc. reported last year's cost of goods sold of $120 million. Total assets increased by $50 million during the
slamgirl [31]

7million In all accounts

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2 years ago
Early in January, the following transactions were carried out by Maxwell Communications. Sold capital stock to owners for $35,00
Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

Part a

                                Assets                     Liabilities               Owners Equity

Balances              $308,250                   $108,250                   $200,000

Part b

Transaction #         Assets                     Liabilities                  Owners Equity

1                       + $35,000 (Cash)                nill                    + $35,000 (Capital)

2                      + $35,000 (Land)        +67,500 (Note Payable)          nill

                       + $55,000(Buildings)

                       - $22,500 (Cash)

3                      + $9,500 (Office Equi)  + $9,500 (Acco Payable)      nill

4                      +$20,000 (Cash)          +$20,000(Note Payable)       nill

5                     - $22,250 (Cash)           -$20,000(Acco Payable)       nill

Explanation:

<em>Hi, I have attached the full question below as images.</em>

Part a

Here simply calculated the totals of Assets, Liabilities and Owners Equity at December 31.

Part b

Remember for every transaction, there are two or more accounts affected. To find the effect of transactions, the first step is to identify the the Accounts affected and the amounts to effect these accounts. Determine if the Account is being increased or decreased. Lastly record the effect as required under the Element of Assets, Liabilities and Equity.

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Answer: $1381400

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