Answer:
The payback period is more than 5 years
Explanation:
Net present value is the Net value of all cash inflows and outflows in present value term. All the cash flows are discounted using a required rate of return.
Year Cash flow PV factor Present Value
0 ($490,000) 1 ($490,000)
1 $40,000 0.909 $36,360
2 $10,000 0.826 $8,260
3 $120,000 0.751 $90,120
4 $90,000 0.683 $61,470
5 $180,000 0.621 <u> $111,780 </u>
Net Present Value ($182,010)
NPV of this Investment is negative so, it is not acceptable.
Payback period
Total Net cash inflow of the investment is $440,000 and Initial investment is $490,000. This investment will take more than 5 years to payback the initial investment.
Answer:
c. 7%
Explanation:
According to the given scenario, the computation of the annual stated interest rate on the bonds is shown below:-
Sated interest Rate = Cash interest ÷ Face Value of the bond × 2
= $7,000÷ $200,000 × 2
= 7%
Therefore for computing the annual stated interest rate on the bonds we simply applied the above formula. hence the correct option is c
Kids' Corner, a toy store, ordered a supply of stuffed toys from Toyland Inc. The toys were supposed to be delivered on the 1st of December but were sent to Kids' Corner on the 5th of December. There has been a(n) _____ of contract.
A. compensatory breach
B. anticipatory breach
C. material breach
D. concurrent breach
<u>Correct Option:</u>
There has been a <u>material breach</u> of contract.
<u>Option: C</u>
<u>Explanation:</u>
A contract law concept that applies to a non-performance under the contract that is sufficiently serious to give the grieved party the right to sue for contravention of the contract, is understood as a material break or infringement.
If a substantive violation has occurred, the aggrieved party is therefore deprived of a contractual duty to further results. Here the Kids' Corner toy store ordered a supply of stuffed toys from Toyland Inc. but received order in delay date, which is considered as material breach due to late delivery of expected material.
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": may sell some of your securities to repay the margin loan.
Explanation:
A Margin Call is issued when the equity in a margin account falls below a certain level. In the U.S. this level is set by the Federal Reserve (Fed) Board "Regulation T". Many brokers have their margin requirements known as "house requirements" usually with maintenance levels of 30 to 40%.
When a margin account falls below the margin limit and the trader ignores this, the broker can sell some of the securities of the trader to cover the margin losses.
Answer:
Product Selling price Unit variable cost
$ $
Trunk switch 60 28
Gas door switch 75 33
Glove box light <u>40</u> <u> 22</u>
<u> 175 </u> <u> 83</u>
Composite contribution margin
= Composite selling price - Composite unit variable cost
= $175 - $83
= $92
Composite contribution margin ratio
= <u>Composite contribution margin</u>
Composite selling price
= <u>$92</u>
$175
= 0.525714285
Composite break-even point in dollars
= <u>Fixed cost</u>
Composite contribution margin ratio
=<u> $18,840</u>
0.525714285
= $35,837
Explanation:
In this case, there is need to add all the selling prices to obtain composite selling price. We also need to add all the unit variable costs to derive composite unit variable cost.
Composite contribution equals composite selling price minus composite unit variable cost.
Composite contribution margin ratio is the ratio of composite contribution to composite selling price.
Composite break-even point in dollars equal fixed cost divided by composite contribution margin ratio.