<span>The most likely effect of a write-down of inventory to net realizable on a firm's total asset turnover is an increase.
</span>A write-down of inventory to net realizable value is typically recognized as an increase in cost of goods sold in the period of the write-down, according the <span>inventory equation:
</span><span>ending inv</span>entory = beginning inventory + purchases - cost of goods sold
Answer:
The question lacks answers:
<em>a. overcoming reservations
</em>
<em>b. generating and qualifying leads
</em>
<em>c. the presentation
</em>
<em>d. the preapproach
</em>
<em>e. follow-up</em>
The answer is: a. overcoming reservations
The answer can be formulated as - handling objections
Explanation:
The sales presentation process usually follows the sequence:
<em>generating and qualifying leads -> the preapproach -> the presentation -> overcoming reservations -> closing -> follow-up</em>
The part of overcoming reservations is one of the most critical parts of the sales process, as it includes the addressing of the potential concerns a lead may have. This is the part when most salespeople end the whole process, as they are mostly not prepared to argument their sales pitch.
In this example, Patrick is confident and persistent in his efforts to emphasize the benefits of the system, even though the client expressed some concern about it. Patrick successfully overcame the client's reservations by explaining the benefits further.
Answer:
Current Assets = $85,000
Explanation:
Anson Corporation
Balance Sheet (Partial)
As at December 31, 2018
Assets
Current Assets:
Accounts receivable $12,000
Inventories 40,000
Treasury Bill 30,000
<u>Prepaid insurance 3,000</u>
Total current assets $85,000
Prepaid insurance $6,000/2 = $3,000 is for current years. Therefore, $3,000 is a current assets. Since treasury bill is an investment and for 3 months, it is a current assets.
Answer:
8.1%
Explanation:
Firstly, let look at the formula for calculating weighted average cost of capital (WACC):
WACC = (D/A) x r_D x (1-t) + (E/A) x r_E + (PE/A) x r_PE, where:
A: Market value of company asset;
D: Market value of company debt;
E: Market value of company equity;
PE: Market value of company preferred equity;
r_D: cost of debt;
r_E: cost of equity/retained earnings;
r_PE: cost of preferred equity;
t: tax rate
Putting all the numbers together, we have:
WACC = 35% x 6.5% x (1-25%) + 55% x 10.5% + 10% x 6% = 8.1%
Answer:
The total amount invested at 5% is $123,000
The total amount invested at 6% is $390,000
Explanation:
M = amount of money invested at 5%
3M + 21,000 = amount of money invested at 6%
0.05M + 0.06(3M + 21,000) = 29,550
0.05M + 0.18M + 1,260 = 29,550
0.23M = 28,290
M = 28,290 / 0.23 = 123,000
3M + 21,000 = 369,000 + 21,000 = 390,000
