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Oksana_A [137]
3 years ago
11

Suppose that the stock return follows a normal distribution with mean 20% and standard deviation 40%. What is the 5% VaR (value-

at-risk) for this stock
Business
1 answer:
xeze [42]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The 5% VaR (value-at-risk) for this stock 0.858

Explanation:

Value at risk determines the value of the investment at risk of loss. It shows how much of the investment might lose in the given market conditions.

Now deter,ine the value at risk formula

Var = Mean + Standard Deviation x Z score value

Where

Mean = 20%

Standard Deviation = 40%

Z score value = Z Score at significance 5% = 1.645

Placing values in the formula

Var = 20% + 40% x 1.645

Var = 0.2 + 0.4 x 1.645

Var = 0.2 + 0.658

Var = 0.858

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A financial analyst is attempting to assess the future dividend policy of Environmental Systems by examining its life cycle. She
GrogVix [38]

Answer:

Consider the following calculations

Explanation:

A. Dividend per Share = Dividend Payout Ratio * Earnings Per Share

Putting the values given to calculate dividend per share we get,

Stages DPS = Payout Ratio * EPS DPS

Stage 1 =0.00*$0.30                         $0

Stage 2 = 0.13*1.95                         $0.25

Stage 3 =0.31 * $ 2.80                         $0.868

Stage 4 = 0.56*$3.40                         $1.90

b. Calculation of Investors After Tax Income from Cash Dividend:-

Cash Dividend = Number of Shares * DPS in Stage IV

= 290 * $ 1.90

= $552.16

After Tax Income = DIvidend ( 1 - Tax Rate)

= $ 552.16 ( 1- 0.15)

= $ 469.34

C:- In Stage II and Stage III for Growth & Expansion respectively, the firm is likely to utilise stock dividend or stock split.

5 0
3 years ago
It is impossible to address your personal time True or Flase?
dexar [7]
True<span>. </span>It is impossible<span> to repeat the same communication event. .... According to </span>your<span>text, the axiom "the more communication the better" is </span>true....<span>. I really hope this helps</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Bruce &amp; Co. expects its EBIT to be $185,000 every year forever. The firm can borrow at 9 percent. Bruce currently has no deb
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

$751,562.50 and $837,203.125

Explanation:

The formula to compute the value of the firm under the MM proposition approach is shown below:

In first case

= {EBIT × ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$185,000 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $120,250 ÷ 16%

= $751,562.50

Since no debt is there which means the firm is unlevered firm and computation is done accordingly.

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

In second case

= {EBT× ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$172,850 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $112,352.50 ÷ 16%

= $702,203.125

EBT = $185,000 - $135,000 × 9%

       = $185,000 - $12,150

       = $172,850

So, the value of firm would be

= $702,203.125 + $135,000

= $837,203.125

5 0
2 years ago
The Republic of Monaslu has the world's most efficient car manufacturing industry, while the country of Ingora has the world's m
nasty-shy [4]

This form of trade between the two countries illustrates the Heckscher-Ohlin theory.

The Republic of Monaslu is exporting what it can most efficiently produce and the country of Ingora is exporting what it can most efficiently produce. They are also both importing goods that they need.

<h3>Further Explanation</h3>

the Hecksher-Ohlin theory

This theory is based around the idea that countries should export goods or labor that they are the most efficient at producing. This efficiency also means that they should be able to easily turn a profit on these goods or services. Examples would be a country who has a great deal of oil reserves but not enough agriculture. The country would export its oil to then import agricultural products.

the mercantilist doctrine

This doctrine is in full support of domestic goods. The government regulates trade in such a way that promotes domestic goods over imports. Imported goods are heavily regulated through tariffs, while domestic goods are heavily protected.

the product life-cycle theory

This theory states that there are three stages in the life-cycle of a product that enters the market. The first stage is the product introduction. This stage is just as it sounds, the product enters the market. It first starts off in the local market with very little production because it is new and not well known. There are some changes made to the product to make it better and possibly less expensive to produce. As it becomes more popular production and distribution increases. The second stage is the maturity stage. The product is being distributed internationally. Changes to the products are still ongoing, but fewer. Production facilities are being built in various locations so as to produce locally and reduce cost. The last stage is product standardization and streamline of manufacturing. At this stage, the product has undergone it's final iteration. The production facilities are standardized so as to reduce cost. Also, other similar products have begun to flood the marketplace.

the theory of absolute advantage

This is when a producer can produce the same quantity and quality of goods or services as another producer for lesser cost. Therefore it is more efficient and cost effective so it is more profitable.

<h3>Answer Details</h3>

Level: College

Subject: Business

<h3>Keywords</h3>

the Heckscher-Ohlin theory, the mercantilist doctrine, the product life-cycle theory, the theory of absolute advantage.

<h3>Learn More</h3>

the Heckscher-Ohlin: brainly.com/question/4626740

Which of the following is NOT a proposition of the Heckscher-Ohlin model?: brainly.com/question/12978629

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Uniform Supply accepted a $5,200, 90-day, 12% note from Tracy Janitorial on October 17. If the note is dishonored, but Uniform S
Naya [18.7K]

Answer:

The journal entry is shown below:

Explanation:

The journal entry is as follows

On January 15

Accounts receivable   $5,356

      To Note receivable     $5,200

       To Interest revenue    $26

       To Interest receivable    $130

(Being cash received in respect of note receivable, interest accrual is recorded)

The computation of interest receivable is shown below:

= Principal × rate of interest × number of days ÷ (total number of days in a year)  

= $5,200 × 12% × (75 days ÷ 360 days)

= $130

The 75 days is counted from October 17 to December 31

And, the total amount is

= Principal × rate of interest × number of days ÷ (total number of days in a year)  

= $5,200 × 12% × (90 days ÷ 360 days)

= $156

8 0
2 years ago
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