Answer:
S/N ACCOUNT DEBIT CREDIT
1 Equipment $22,000
Cash $22,000
Being payment for new component expected to increase the
equipment’s productivity by 10% a year
2. Equipment Repairs expenses $6,250
Cash $6,250
Being payment for equipment repair
3. Equipment $14,870
Cash $14,870
Being payment for equipment repair to prolong the useful life
the asset
Explanation:
The initial cost incurred in acquiring an asset is debited to asset account, subsequently every other cost spent on the assets are either expenses against the earning of that period or expensed over many years over the useful life of the asset.
Capitalization is the recognition of an expense as an asset in the balance sheet rather than expenses in the income statement.
The payment of $22,000 paid for the equipment productivity must be capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset because it is a cost that is expected to increase the equipment’s productivity by 10% a year.
The $6,250 paid for normal repair is a revenue items which is to be expensed against the earning of that period.
The $14,870 paid for repairs which will increase the useful life of the equipment from four to five years is a capital expenditure which should capitalized, that is added to the cost of the asset.
D. He is trying to improve the employees speaking skills so there is less conflict
In order to buy a car worth $25,000 a monthly payment of $622.12 is required.
Mortgages are one type of loan that frequently has a structure that calls for a stream of identical monthly payments. The lender can assess whether the customer's budget can support equal monthly payments by doing so.
Suppose the monthly payment is M.
With 9 percent APR, the effective monthly rate is 9%/12 = 0.75%.
There will be 12 x 4 years, or 48 monthly payments.
The face value of the loan must be equal to the present value of these monthly payments, or
which yields M = 622.12.
If you only paid interest, the monthly payment would be calculated as follows: principal * monthly interest rate (9% /12) = 25,000*0.75% = 187.5.
The results would be that after five years, you would still owe the whole amount of $25,000 and would have to pay $11,250 in interest.
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Answer: Market Efficiency
Explanation:
It is important that the Government as a regulator should not get involved in acts that would protect individual institutions from failure because that would defeat the whole purpose of a competitive industry.
If a government is known to directly involve itself in the protection of institutions from failure, efficiency in institutions may become low because of the lack of fear of failure as companies believe that should they run into bad times, they will simply be bailed out by the government so there is no need for them to maintain a competitive edge.
This can lead to a situation where we have companies performing sub optimally in an economy which can only act to reduce the Economic growth of a country.
Government institutions usually have such backing and in a lot of countries are prone to failure. Look at the Bamangwato Concessions Limited (BCL) mine in Botswana for instance that kept failing and refusing to improve it's efficiency because they could always run back to the government for a bailout. Their position eventually became so untenable that bankruptcy was the only option.
Answer:
Beranek Corp. should borrow $288,000 to achieve the target debt ratio.
Explanation:
40% of debt-to-asset ratio means that 40% of the assets should be Financed with debt and the remaining with equity. We have $720,000 worth of assets, simply multiply it with 40% and you will get the amount the needs to be borrowed.
If you have any queries about double entries of all this scenario, do leave a comment, I'll be pleased to help you.
Thank you!
