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Alina [70]
3 years ago
6

The 2012 financial statements of Marker Co. contain the following selected data (in millions).

Business
1 answer:
Anna11 [10]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

a.67.9%.

Explanation:

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = Total Liabilities / Total Assets x 100

<em>Total Liabilities = $95,000,000 </em>

<em>Total Assets = $140,000,000 </em>

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = $95,000,000 / $140,000,000 x 100

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = 0.679 x 100

or

Debt to Total Assets Ratio = 67.9%

Hence, The Assets of Marker Co. are 67.9% funded by creditors.

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1. (30 points) Please elaborate what will happen to Net Earnings to Sales and Net Earnings to Total Book Assets when you observe
marta [7]

Answer:

Impact on Net Earnings to Sales and Net Earnings to Total Book Assets:

a) A company's Net Earnings to Sales and Net Earnings to Total Book Assets will increase due to the 30% increase in sales.  This result will be different with an increase by a similar margin in the Cost of Goods Sold.

b) Net Earnings to Sales and Net Earnings to Total Book Assets will decrease by 30% as a result of the increase in Property, Plant, and Equipment, because this increase also increased the operating and administrative expense (depreciation), even though Sales and Cost of Goods Sold remained constant.

Explanation:

The net earnings to sales is an expression of the ratio of the net income to the sales revenue.  The net earnings result after deducting all costs from sales revenue.  The net earnings to total book assets are the same expression as the Return on Assets.

6 0
3 years ago
Item 1 Manufacturing overhead was estimated to be $629,300 for the year along with 20,300 direct labor hours. Actual manufacturi
Neporo4naja [7]

Answer:

$31 per hour

Explanation:

The predetermined overhead rate is computed as

= Estimated manufacturing overhead / Estimated direct labor hours

Given that

Estimate manufacturing overhead = $629,300

Estimated direct labor hour = 20,300

Therefore,

Predetermined overhead rate

= $629,300 / 20,300

= $31 per hour

5 0
2 years ago
Tom Cruise Lines Inc. issued bonds five years ago at $1,000 per bond. These bonds had a 25-year life when issued and the annual
Dmitrij [34]

<u>Solution and Explanation:</u>

Required Return after 5 year =  Real rate of return +   Inflation premium + Risk premium

Required Return after 5 year = 5+2+4

Required Return after 5 year =11%

No of year left to maturity = 25

Annual Interest payment = 15%*1000 = 150

Face value of Bond = 1000

New price of the bond = pv (rate, nper, pmt, fv)

New price of the bond = pv (11%,25,150,1000)

New price of the bond = $ 1336.87

4 0
3 years ago
g if 1 British pound can be exchanged for 180 cents of U.S. currency, what fraction should be used to compute the indirect quota
Mrrafil [7]

Answer: 1/1.8

Explanation:

From the question, we are informed that 1 British pound can be exchanged for 180 cents of U.S. currency. To get the fraction that should be used to compute the indirect quotation of the exchange rate expressed in British pounds, we have to change the 180 cents to dollars first.

Since 100 cents = 1 dollar, 180 cents = 1.8 dollars. Therefore, fraction should be used to compute the indirect quotation of the exchange rate expressed in British pounds will be:

= 1/1.8

7 0
3 years ago
Pursuing multiple market segments at the same time is the best way to enter new markets. Group of answer choices True False
Archy [21]

It should be noted that pursuing multiple market segments at the same time is not the best way to enter new markets. Therefore, it's false.

<h3>What is a market?</h3>

A market simply means the coming together of a buyer and seller for transactions purpose.

In this case, pursuing multiple market segments at the same time is not the best way to enter new markets. One needs to have complete knowledge before entering a market.

Learn more about market on:

brainly.com/question/25754149

7 0
2 years ago
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