Answer: Option C
Explanation:
A. Assets with physical existence are called tangible assets.
B. There are several financial instruments that lacks physical substance but are not considered as intangible assets.
C. Intangible assets can be either long term or short term.
D. Only those intangible assets that have definite lives are amortized, others with indefinite life are not.
Answer:
Project A
Years Cashflows Discount factor Present values
0 250,000 1 -250,000
1-10 45,100 6.144 277,094.40
Sum of all present value=NPV=27,094.40
IRR (by using trial and error method) = 12.4696%
Note: Discount factor for the year 1-10 is calculated by using annuity formula i.e [1-(1+10%)]/10% = 6.144
Project B
Years Cashflows Discount factor Present values
0 (350,000) 1 (350,000)
1 72,500 0.91 65,975
2 65,500 0.83 54,365
3 73,800 0.75 55,350
4 71,500 0.68 48,620
5 69,800 0.62 43,276
6 75,500 0.56 42,280
7 31,000 0.51 15,810
8 47,500 0.47 22,325
9 55,500 0.42 23,310
10 29,200 0.38 11,096
Sum of all present values=NPV=32,407
IRR(by using trial and error method=12.4186%
On the basis of NPV project B is better because it gives higher NPV than project A. Whereas, Project A is better than project B on the basis of IRR because project A has slightly higher IRR than project B.
b)The conflict between both the investment appraisal technique is likely due to different cash flow patterns of both the project. In such situation decision should be based on NPV because this is an absolute measure
Answer: ($24100)
Explanation:
The annual financial advantage (disadvantage) for the company goes thus:
The relevant cost to produce will be:
= ($4.10 × 19,000) + ($8.70 × 19,000) + ($9.20 × 19,000) + ($4.60 × 19,000) + $31,000
= $77900 + $165300 + $174800 + $87400 + $31000
= $536,400
The relevant costs to buy will be:
= 19,000 × $29.5
= $560,500
Since the relevant cost to buy is more than the relevant cost to produce, then the financial disadvantage will be:
= $560500 - $536,400
= $24,100
The answer is ($24,100)
Answer:
21.26%
Explanation:
Calculation for the Rate of return that the
investor receive on the XYZ Fund last year
Using this formula
Rate of return =Current value - original value +Income distributions+ Capital gain distributions) / original value) x 100
Where,
Current value =$19.47
Original value =$17.50
Income distributions=$0.75
Capital gain distributions=$1.00
Let plug in the formula
Rate of return($19.47 - $17.50 + $0.75 + $1.00)/$17.50
Rate of return =($1.97+0.75+$1.00)/$17.50
Rate of return=$3.72/$17.50
Rate of return =0.2126*100
Rate of return =21.26%
Therefore the rate of return that did investor receive on the XYZ Fund last year will be 21.26%
Answer:
current share price = $5.40
so correct option is C. $5.40
Explanation:
given data
dividends paid = 15 years
pay = $6 per share
increase = 4%
to find out
current share price
solution
we know that Value after year 15 will be = ( D15 × Growth rate) ÷ (required return - growth rate) ......................1
put here value
Value after year 15 = 
Value after year 15 = $52
so here current share price will be
current share price = Future dividends × Present value of discounting factor
current share price = 
current share price = $5.40
so correct option is C. $5.40
