Answer:
The answer is D.) infinitely many solutions mate
Answer:
Solve for K by simplifying both sides of the inequality, then isolating the variable.
Inequality Form:
k > 1
<u>Interval Notation</u>:
(1, ∞)
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
WITHOUT replacement of first card drawn:
P(a 10 is drawn) = 13/52 = 1/4
P(the next draw is a 10) = 12/52 = 3/13
P(drawing two 10s without replacement of the first draw) = (1/4)(3/13) = 3/52
WITH replacement of first card:
P(two 10s are drawn) = P(first card is a 10)*P(first card is a 10) = (4/13)(4/13) =
16/169
Answer:
I think your answer is A. This sounds like a fixed-rate loan.
