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Orlov [11]
3 years ago
9

Which numbers are perfect squares? Check all that apply. 0 1 OOOOOO

Mathematics
2 answers:
klio [65]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:7574649275658473849575629375844

????””??!!????!!??!okkkokkdmkdidjkdd

””3”5?.4793*’&*#)$)45*3926&*3)&/$&’&&!;

Step-by-step explanation:

77julia77 [94]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1 is the only available answer that is a perfect square.

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3 years ago
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The client is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg intravenously in divided doses over 5 days. The client weighs 176 p
marishachu [46]

Answer:

800 mg

Step-by-step explanation:

As the excerpt states that the client weights 176 pounds and is to receive cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) 50 mg/kg, we have to convert 176 pounds to kg:

1 kg → 2.20 pounds

  x   ←  176 pounds

x= (176 pounds * 1 kg)/2.20 pounds= 80 kg

Now, we have to determine the total amount of cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan) that the client has to receive:

50 mg/kg

For 80 kg: 80 kg *50 mg/kg= 4,000  mg

As the dose is divided over 5 days:

4,000 mg / 5= 800 mg

The client will receive 800 mg of cyclophosphamide each day.

6 0
3 years ago
Work out the interior angle of the octagon.<br> Please show the working out.
bija089 [108]

Answer:

135°

Step-by-step explanation:

formula = (n-2) * 180, whereby 'n' is the number of sides.

therefore, (8-2) * 180 = 1080°

1080° ÷ number of sides

= 1080° ÷ 8

= 135°

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Two dance teams, the Roses and the Tulips, are perfectly matched so that their chances of winning are both set at 50%. What is t
shtirl [24]

Answer:

6%

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1

The fist step is to define the probabilities.

The events are independent from each other. Each team wins with probability \frac{1}{2} and looses with probability \frac{1}{2}.  Let P(W_R) be probability that Roses win and P(L_R)  be the probability that Roses loose.

Step 2

The second step is to calculate the probabilities by multiplying the probabilities with the first 3 terms in the product being the probability of a win and the last term being the probability of a loss.

The calculation is shown below,

P(W_R)\times P(W_R)\times P(W_R)\times P(L_R)=\frac{1}{2} \times \frac{1}{2} \times\frac{1}{2} \times\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{16}

Step 3

The last step is to convert this probability into a percentage. Converting this probability to a percentage is  done as shown below,

\frac{1}{16} \times 100\%=6.25\%.

Step 4

The next step is to round down the percentage . The value of 6.25% rounded down is 6%. The correct answer is 6%.


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3 years ago
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