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Blizzard [7]
3 years ago
5

Clark Company sells 8% bonds having a maturity value of $5,000,000 for $5,421,236. The bonds are dated January 1, 2017, and matu

re January 1, 2022. Interest is payable annually on January 1. Set up a schedule of interest expense and premium amortization under the effective-interest method. (Hint: The effective interest rate must be computed.)

Business
1 answer:
avanturin [10]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

attached table

Explanation:

We use goal seek of excel to determinate the market rate:

Which is the rate that discounting the coupon payment and maturity matches the 5,421,236 we receive for the bond:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 200,000.000

time 10

rate 0.<em>030117724</em>

200000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0301177235440986)^{-10} }{0.0301177235440986} = PV\\

PV $1,705,016.0533

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   5,000,000.00

time   10.00

rate  <em>0.030117724</em>

\frac{5000000}{(1 + 0.0301177235440986)^{10} } = PV  

PV   3,716,219.95

PV c $1,705,016.0533

PV m  $3,716,219.9467

Total $5,421,236.0000

Now, we determiante the schedule by doing as follow:

carrying value x market rate = interest expense

cash outlay per period: face value x coupon rate

the amortization will be the difference

after each payment we adjust the carrying value by subtracting the amortization

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The stockholders’ equity accounts of Martinez Company have the following balances on December 31, 2017. Common stock, $10 par, 3
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retained earnings     577,200 debit

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--to record declared stock dividends--

stock dividends payable   577,200 debit

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              additional paid-in                 8,424,000 credit

--issued stock dividends--

A 2-for-1 stock split NO ENTRY

Explanation:

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Common stock for the face value and additional paid-in for the difference:

15,600 x 10 = 156,000

577,200 - 156,000 = 421,600

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<u>A 2-for-1 stock split</u>

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