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3 years ago

Can the sum of two mixed numbers be equal to 2?

Mathematics

2 answers:

MA_775_DIABLO [31]3 years ago

7 0

The answer is no because how ever times you try to answer a question even 2 doesnt

djverab [1.8K]3 years ago

5 0

The answer is no. No matter how you do it two mixed numbers will never be a whole and even 2

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Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

The average number of annual trips per family to amusement parks in the UnitedStates is Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6

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Answer:

a) 0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b) 0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c) 0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d) 0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e) 0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distributed, with a mean of 0.6 trips per year

This means that $\mu = 0.6n$ , in which n is the number of years.

a.The family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 0) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.5488$

0.5488 = 54.88% probability that the family did not make a trip to an amusement park last year.

b.The family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

This is P(X = 1) when n = 1, so $\mu = 0.6$ .

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-0.6}*(0.6)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.3293$

0.3293 = 32.93% probability that the family took exactly one trip to an amusement park last year.

c.The family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

Either the family took less than two trips, or it took two or more trips. So

$P(X < 2) + P(X \geq 2) = 1$

We want

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)$

In which

$P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.5488 + 0.3293 = 0.8781$

$P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.8781 = 0.1219$

0.1219 = 12.19% probability that the family took two or more trips to amusement parks last year.

d.The family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

Three years, so $\mu = 0.6(3) = 1.8$ .

This is

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.1653$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.2975$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2678$

$P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-1.8}*(1.8)^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.1607$

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.1653 + 0.2975 + 0.2678 + 0.1607 = 0.8913$

0.8913 = 89.13% probability that the family took three or fewer trips to amusement parks over a three-year period.

e.The family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

Six years, so $\mu = 0.6(6) = 3.6$ .

This is P(X = 4). So

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 4) = \frac{e^{-3.6}*(3.6)^{4}}{(4)!} = 0.1912$

0.1912 = 19.12% probability that the family took exactly four trips to amusement parks during a six-year period.

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