Answer: the solution becomes 3=y+1-1
Step-by-step explanation:
The first step is to combine like terms meaning you subtract 1-1. Then you are left with 3=y.
B is the answer I think.Please make me brainlist answer!
Answer: $4.40
Step-by-step explanation:
Trust me did the assignment
so basically what you would have to do is set up your numbers. it would look something like this. 68
× 49
-------------
and would then multiply 9 by 8, 9 by 6. put it down below the line while making sure to carry the numbers if need be. then do the same with the 4 times 8, and 4 by 6.
Answer:
A) 12.5%
B) 50%
C) 50%
Step-by-step explanation:
For A, 7 is one of the 8 possibilities (1/8). 1/8 of 100 is 12.5, so your chance of spinning a 7 is 12.5%
For B, even numbers are 4/8 or 1/2 of your options. 1/2 of 100 is 50, so your chance of spinning an even number is 50%
For C, there are 4 out of 8 numbers that are prime (2,3,5, & 7).
4/8 or 1/2 of 100 is 50, so your chance of spinning a prime number is 50%
hope this helps
