Question

Amram Inc. can issue a 20-year bond with a 6% annual coupon at par. This bond is not convertible, not callable, and has no sinking fund. Alternatively, Amram could issue a 20-year bond that is convertible into common equity, may be called, and has a sinking fund. Which of the following most accurately describes the coupon rate that Amram would have to pay on the second bond, the convertible, callable bond with the sinking fund, to have it sell initially at par? a. The coupon rate should be exactly equal to 6%. b. The coupon rate could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%, depending on the specific terms set, but in the real world the convertible feature would probably cause the coupon rate to be less than 6%. c. The rate should be slightly greater than 6%. d. The rate should be over 7%. e. The rate should be over 8%.

Answer 1

Answer:

B) The coupon rate could be less than, equal to, or greater than 6%, depending on the specific terms set, but in the real world the convertible feature would probably cause the coupon rate to be less than 6%.

Explanation:

Amram Inc. is issuing two bonds, one is not convertible and the other one is convertible and callable. Regardless of the coupon rate that they plan to set, convertible and callable bonds will usually (almost always) have a coupon rate that is lower than non-convertible or non-callable bonds.

Convertible bonds are bonds that can be converted or exchanged to common stock. Since convertible bonds offer more investment options, their risk is lower than non-convertible bonds.

Callable bonds is a bond that can be redeemed before the maturity date.