Answer:
<h2>
a. The Preferred stock is noncumulative.</h2>
Preferred stock
= 7,710 * 17.5 * 8%
= $10,794
Per share
= 10,794/7,710
= $1.40
Common Shareholders.
= 63,800 - 10,794
= $53,006
Per share
= 53,006/49,000
= $1.08
<h2>
b. Preferred stock is cumulative. </h2>
This means that if preferred dividends are not paid in a year, they will be accrued and paid when they can.
Preferred stock
= 7,710 * 3 years (2017,2018,2019)
= $23,130
Per share = 23,130/7,710
= $3
Common stock
= 63,800 - 23,130
= $40,670
Per share
= 40,670/49,000
= $0.83
c. Why were the dividends per share of common stock less for the cumulative preferred stock than the noncumulative preferred stock?
b. The dividends in arrears on the preferred stock had to be fulfilled before dividends could be paid for the current year.
They differ in their difference threshold. This is being defined when their sensory stimuli is different, making the individual perceive them also, as different. This occurs in the scenario given above for Susan couldn't hear the level 7 volume when Mary could already hear it.
Answer: Big Tech companies thrive on consumer data.
Explanation: So you can limit there power by imposing
Answer:
future value
Explanation:
Future value is the value of a sum of money at some point in the future given a certain interest rate.
Formula for future value = present value x ( 1 + r )^n
Assuming i = 10
the future value of $100 in 5 years = 100 x ( 1.1)^5 = $161.05
The real money demand is equal to $2,60,000
Money demand/ P = 1000+0.2Y -1000i
Money demand/200= 1000+0.2(2000)-1000(0.1)= 1000+400-100
=1300
Money demand /200 = 1300
Money demand = $1300*200
= $2,60,000
Money demand is the demand for real cash balances as people hold onto money to purchase goods and services. The higher the price level, the more money you need to buy a certain amount of goods.
Learn more about Money demand here:brainly.com/question/24109874
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