Answer:
d) a bond issued by the U.S. government
Explanation:
A bond issued by the US government will be expected to pay the lowest interest rate because the default risk is almost 0 with the US government which means that it is a risk free investment for the lender. The investor will be willing to lend money to US government at the lowest interest rate out of all the options because it is the safest investment therefore the investor's required rate of return is the lowest for US government.
Answer:
For such a report , the sql query required would be:
SELECT emp_id, curr_salary, curr_salary*1.03 AS inc_salary FROM Employee;
Explanation:
For such a report , the sql query required would be:
SELECT emp_id, curr_salary, curr_salary*1.03 AS inc_salary FROM Employee;
In the above sql query employee id is emp_id , curr_salary is the current salary column. "curr_salary*1.03" is been made because an increment of 3% means salary + salary*3% , that is , salary*1.03.
The correct answer is choice b - the percentage of receivables basis.
When an accountant is calculating the bad debts expense they will take into account the balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Account when they are calculating on the percentage of sales basis.
