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zubka84 [21]
4 years ago
12

Which logarithmic function has a y-intercept?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Alenkinab [10]4 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Option 1 is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have different functions

we need to tell which one of them will have y-intercept

So, to find y-intercept we will put x=0

So, in first function put x=0 we get:

f(0)=log(0+1)-1

\Rightarrow f(0)=log(1)-1

\Rightarrow f(0)=-1

Hence, the first function has y-intercept.

In all the last three functions:

When we put x=0 in f(x)=log x+1

We will get log(0) which is not defined

And x=0 in f(x)=log(x-1)+1

log(-1) which is also not defined.

And x=0 in f(x)=log(x-1)-1

Again not defined.

Lorico [155]4 years ago
3 0
The first one, f(x)=log(x+1)-1 has a y-intercept
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