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3 years ago

What’s the answer for this question?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Sedbober [7]3 years ago

7 0

Answer:

The answer to you equation is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: take the m and replace it 21 the multiply 21 and the numerator to get 21 over 3.

Step 2: divide 21 and 3 to get 7

Step 3: take the n and replace it with 12 then multiply 12 and 1 to get 12/2

Step 4: divide 12 and 2 to get 6

Step 5: then you do 7-1-2 which equals 4

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago

Leonard spent 1/4 of his money on a sandwich. He spent 2 times as much on a gift for his brother as on some comic books. He had

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3 years ago

find the probability exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success if 50%. round

Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

Hence, the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials of a binomial experiment round to the nearest tenth of a percent is:

31.2%

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of getting exactly k successes in n trials is given by the probability mass function:

$P(k;n,p)=P(X=k)={\binom {n}{k}}p^{k}(1-p)^{n-k}$

Where p denotes the probability of success.

We are given that the probability of success if 50%.

i.e. $p=\dfrac{1}{2}$

also form the question we have:

k=3 and n=6.

Hence the probability of exactly 3 successes in 6 trials is:

$P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(1-\dfrac{1}{2})^{6-3}$

$P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{3}$

$P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)={\binom {6}{3}}(\dfrac{1}{2})^{6$

$\binom {6}{3}=20$

Hence,

$P(3;6,\dfrac{1}{2})=P(X=3)=20\times (\dfrac{1}{2})^6=\dfrac{5}{16$

In percentage the probability will be:

$\dfrac{5}{16}\times 100=31.25\%=31.2\%$

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3 years ago

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3 years ago

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