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Tems11 [23]
3 years ago
14

Suppose from the first step of candy bar manufacture (formation of nougat) to the final step (packaging) each candy bar spends e

xactly 1.25 hours in the process. The company is producing just enough to meet their demand of 20,000 candy bars per hour. How many candy bars are in process, on average? (just enter a number with no punctuation or anything else in your answer, not even commas for large numbers)
Business
1 answer:
noname [10]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

25,000

Explanation:

Given that,

Time taken from first step to final step, cycle time = 1.25 hours

Demand for candy bars = 20,000

Throughput time = 20,000 candy bars per hour

Candies in process is work in progress:

= cycle time × Throughput time

= 1.25 hours × 20,000 candy bars per hour

= 25,000

Therefore,

25,000 candy bars are in process, on average.

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Maryanne purchases a water bed online. However, when it is delivered to Maryanne's house, the measurements of the bed do not mat
Inessa05 [86]
It's the letter C. because if she would of ask about the return policy she won't have this problem
5 0
3 years ago
On December 1, 2016, Insto Photo Company purchased merchandise, invoice price $25,000, and issued a 12%, 120-day note to Ringo C
Leto [7]

Answer:

See explanation section

Explanation:

Requirement A

                            Insto Photo Company

                                  Journal Entries

Date                             Accounts Name                    Debit          Credit

December 1, 2016     Inventory                              $25,000

                                           Notes payable                                 $25,000

<em>Note</em>: As the merchandise company issued a note for the credit purchase of merchandise inventory, notes payable is used instead of accounts payable.

Dec. 31, 2016             Interest expense                      $250

                                               Interest payable                             $250

<em>Note: </em>Adjusting entry is needed as the fiscal year is ended on 31st December, therefore, there will be an accrued interest expense to be paid for one month. The calculation of interest expense = $25,000 × 12% × (30 ÷ 360) [assuming  1 year = 360 days, 1 month = 30 days]. = $250 for one month's accrual.

Requirement B

March 31, 2017           Interest expense                     $   750

                                   Interest payable                      $   250

                                   Notes payable                       $25,000

                                                      Cash                                      $26,000

<em>Note:</em> At the end of the maturity date, the buyer will pay all the bills of the notes plus interest. Interest payable becomes debit as it did not pay by the buyer on 31st December, 2016. The remaining interest = $25,000 × 12% × (90 ÷ 360) = $750. Total cash will be paid after the maturity = $25,000 + $250 + $750 = $26,000.

3 0
3 years ago
Tin-Tin Waste Management, Inc., is growing rapidly. Dividends are expected to grow at rates of 30 percent, 35 percent, 25 percen
scoundrel [369]

Answer:

The dividend for the current year (D0) is $2.15.

Explanation:

This can be calculated as follows:

Current dividend = D0

Next dividend = (1 + relevant growth rate) * Current dividend ........... (1)

Based on equation (1), we have:

D1 = (1 + 0.30) * D0 = 1.30D0

D2 = (1 + 0.35) * D1 = 1.35 * 1.30D0 = (1.35 * 1.30)D0 = 1.755D0

D3 = (1 + 0.25) * D2 = 1.25 * 1.755D0 = (1.25 * 1.755)D0 = 2.19375D0

D4 = (1 + 0.18) * D3 = 1.18 * 2.19375D0 = (1.18 * 2.19375)D0 = 2.588625D0

D5 = (1 + 0.07) * D4 = 1.07 * 2.588625D0 = (1.07 * 2.588625)D0 = 2.76982875D0

Using Gordon Growth stable formula, we have price in year 4 (P4) as follows:

P4 = D5/(required rate of return - Perpetual dividend growth rate) ........ (2)

Substituting all the relevant values to equation (2), we have:

P4 = 2.76982875D0/(0.16 - 0.07)

P4 =2.76982875D0/0.09

P4 = 30.775875D0

Since the market price is the sum of all the present values of dividends from year 1 to 4 and P4, we have:

$47.85 = (D1 / (1 + required rate of return)^1) + (D2 / (1 + required rate of return)^2) + (D3 / (1 + required rate of return)^3) + (D4 / (1 + required rate of return)^4) + (P4 / (1 + required rate of return)^4) ...........(3)

Substituting all the relevant values to equation (3), we have:

$47.85 = (1.30D0 / 1.16^1) + (1.755D0 / 1.16^2) + (2.19375D0 / 1.16^3) + (2.588625D0 / 1.16^4) + (30.775875D0 / 1.16^4)

$47.85 = [(1.3 / 1.16^1) + (1.755 / 1.16^2) + (2.19375 / 1.16^3) + (2.588625 / 1.16^4) + (30.775875 / 1.16^4)]D0

$47.85 = 22.2572996535323D0

D0 = $47.85 / 22.2572996535323

D0 = $2.15

Therefore, the dividend for the current year (D0) is $2.15.

5 0
3 years ago
If the economy's actual GDP is greater than its potential GDP, then there is high unemployment in that economy. Group of answer
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

FALSE

Explanation: GDP( GROSS DOMESTIC PRODUCT) is a Macroeconomics concept which means the total value of a country's product calculated within a specific time.

REAL GDP: is a measure of the values of a country's products adjusted according to inflation.

POTENTIAL GDP is theoretical concept which is the value of what a country can produce at a constant inflation rate.

When REAL GDP IS GREATER THAN POTENTIAL GDP THE COUNTRY IS AT MORE THAN FULL EMPLOYMENT.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Alpha has $40,000 of capital per worker, while Beta has $5,000 of capital per worker. In all other respects, the two countries a
ANEK [815]

Answer:

b) less

Explanation:

Adding 1,000 capital to Alpha will represnet 1,000/40,000 = 2.5% increase

while adding  to Beta will represent 1,000/5,000 = 20% increase

Is important when doing real-life analysis the asusmption we made: holding other factors constant and that in all other respects the two countries are the same, as in real life there are cultural, religion, politics, natural resource and even geography that makes the analysis differ.

8 0
3 years ago
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