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tresset_1 [31]
3 years ago
9

What is 12 times 1............... i know it but its for a friend

Mathematics
2 answers:
Sever21 [200]3 years ago
5 0
12×1 is 12, because it's just 12 times one, if you think about it it's simple.
VladimirAG [237]3 years ago
3 0
The answer is twelve.
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(06.01)<br> Solve x + 3y = 9<br> 3x − 3y = −13
Irina-Kira [14]

Answer:

Slove For X

x= -1

Solve for Y

Y= 10/3

Step-by-step explanation:

SO I did Elimination method

To isolate X and to solve for it

x+3y=9

3x−3y=−13

Add these equations to eliminate y:

4x=−4

Solve for X

x=-1

Now plug x back in to solve for y

4 0
3 years ago
Which expressions are equivalent to the expression −6x + 8? Select all that apply. 1. −2(3x + 4) 2. 2(−3x + 4) 3. 5(x + 1) − 11x
ki77a [65]
1)
-2(3x+4)=-6x-8≠-6x+8

2)
2(-3x+4)=-6x+8

3)
5(x+1)-11x+3=5x+5-11x+3=-6x+8

4)
x+2-7x+6=-6x+8

5)
8-6x=-6x+8

Answer: The expressions 2,3,4 and 5 are equivalents.
6 0
3 years ago
Please give me the correct answer.​
nydimaria [60]

Answer:

The third one which is the one on the bottom to the right under 34 the ont he bottom

7 0
3 years ago
HELP WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST TO THE FIRST ANSWER!!!!<br> is 0=0 no solution or all real numbers???
kenny6666 [7]

Answer:

All real numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

Since 0 does equal 0, and value would be able to work. So any x-value will work. Infinite values for <em>x</em>, resulting in all real numbers.

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You take a quiz with 6 multiple choice questions. After you studied your estimated that you would have about an 80 % chance of g
Arada [10]

Answer:

1.15%

Step-by-step explanation:

To get the probability of m  independent events you multiply the individual probability of each event. In this case we have m independent events, each one with the same probability, therefore:

p^{m}

0.8^{20} = 1.15\%

This is a particlar scenario of binomial distribution problem. So the binomial distribution questions are about the number of success of m independent events, where every individual event has the same p probability. In the question we have 20 events and each event has a probability of 80%. The binomial distribution formula is:

\binom{n}{k} * p^{k} * (1-p)^{n-k}

n is the number of events

k is the number of success

p is the probability of each individual event

\binom{n}{k} is the binomial coefficient

the binomial coefficient allows to find the subsets of k elements in a set of n elements.  In this case there is only one subset possible since the only way to get 20 of 20 correct questions is to getting right all questions (for getting 19 of 20 questions there are many ways, for example getting the first question wrong and all the other questions right, or getting second questions wrong and all the other questions right, etc).

\binom{n}{k} = \frac{n!}{k!(n-k)!}

therefore, for this questions we have:

\frac{20!}{20!(20-20)!} * 0.8^{20} * (1-0.8)^{0} = 1.15\%

4 0
3 years ago
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