Answer:
60 in^2
Step-by-step explanation:
Formula A=LW
Substitution:
Easy Pea-sy!
I mean, there it only one answer so...
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180% if what number is 36
1 answer:
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This can be solved by using the normal approximation to the binomial distribution.
mean = np = 10.000 * 0.5 = 5,000
The standard deviation is given by:
The probability of obtaining more than 5100 tails is 0.0228 and the probability of obtaining fewer than 5100 tails is 0.9772.
The odds of obtaining more than 5100 tails is therefore:
0.0228:0.9772 = 1:42.86.
mean = np = 10.000 * 0.5 = 5,000
The standard deviation is given by:
The probability of obtaining more than 5100 tails is 0.0228 and the probability of obtaining fewer than 5100 tails is 0.9772.
The odds of obtaining more than 5100 tails is therefore:
0.0228:0.9772 = 1:42.86.
When you divide 6x10^24 by 8x10^8 you end up with
This simplifies to
Now this number is not written in scientific notation as it does not have its first digit before the decimal, so we must move the decimal of this one to the right.
To do that you must multiply the number by 10.
This means that the exponet of 10 must decrease by 1.
This makes the answer